1. Consider the following statements regarding contesting elections in India:
1. A candidate is permitted to contest elections from a maximum of two constituencies simultaneously.
2. If a candidate is elected from more than one constituency, they are required to vacate all but one seat.
3. A candidate may contest elections from any number of constituencies without restriction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Under Section 33(7) of the RPA 1951, a person is permitted to contest an election from a maximum of two constituencies. This applies to general elections as well as bye-elections.Hence Statement 1 is Correct:
- According to Section 70 of the RPA 1951, while a candidate can contest two seats, they cannot represent both. If they win both, they must resign from one within 14 days. If they fail to do so, both seats are declared vacant.Hence Statement 2 is Correct:
- There is a strict legal restriction. Before 1996, there was indeed no limit on the number of constituencies a candidate could contest, but the Act was amended in 1996 to set the limit at two.Hence Statement 3 is Incorrect:
In NEWS: Vijay to fight from Perambur, Tiruchi East constituencies
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2021) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 |
2. With reference to the climatic and geographical characteristics of the trans-Himalayan region of Lahaul and Spiti, consider the following statements:
1. The region exhibits features of a cold desert owing to its high altitude and minimal precipitation.
2. Its location on the windward side of the Himalayas results in significant monsoonal rainfall.
3. The region’s aridity is primarily due to its position in the rain-shadow zone of the Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The region exhibits features of a cold desert owing to its high altitude and minimal precipitation.
- Much like Ladakh, Lahaul and Spiti are classified as a cold desert. Because of its extreme elevation (mostly above 3,000 meters), temperatures remain very low for most of the year. The air is thin and dry, and the landscape is characterized by rugged, barren mountains with very little natural vegetation.Hence statement 1 is correct.
Its location on the windward side of the Himalayas results in significant monsoonal rainfall.
- This region is located on the leeward side (the side sheltered from the wind) of the Great Himalayan Range. The massive mountain peaks act as a physical barrier that prevents the moisture-laden South-West Monsoon winds from entering the valley. Consequently, the region receives very little rainfall during the monsoon season.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The region’s aridity is primarily due to its position in the rain-shadow zone of the Himalayas.
- Aridity is the defining characteristic of this area. As the monsoon clouds rise along the southern slopes of the Himalayas, they shed most of their moisture as heavy rain. By the time the air crosses over to the Lahaul and Spiti side, it is dry. This phenomenon creates a rain-shadow effect, leaving the region with an annual precipitation that is significantly lower than the southern Himalayan foothills.Hence statement 3 is correct.
In NEWS: Fresh snowfall in Himachal; hailstorm warning for Shimla
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2020) Q. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
3. Fatehgarh Sahib is historically associated with which of the following events?
(a) Execution of Guru Tegh Bahadur
(b) Martyrdom of the younger sons of Guru Gobind Singh
(c) Coronation of Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(d) First Sikh–Mughal treaty
Answer: (b)Martyrdom of the younger sons of Guru Gobind Singh
Explanation:
The Martyrdom (Saka Sirhind)
In 1704, the two younger sons (Sahibzadas) of Guru Gobind Singh—Sahibzada Zorawar Singh (aged 9) and Sahibzada Fateh Singh (aged 7)—along with their grandmother, Mata Gujri, were captured by the Mughal authorities.
- The Ultimatum: The Nawab of Sirhind, Wazir Khan, pressured the young princes to convert to Islam in exchange for their lives and riches.
- The Execution: Despite their age, both brothers refused to renounce their faith. Consequently, they were bricked alive on the orders of the Nawab.
- Gurdwara Fatehgarh Sahib: The magnificent Gurdwara stands at the exact location where this execution took place. The name “Fatehgarh” (Fort of Victory) commemorates the spiritual victory of the young Sahibzadas over the tyranny of the Mughal Empire.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- Execution of Guru Tegh Bahadur: This took place at Chandni Chowk, Delhi, where Gurdwara Sis Ganj Sahib now stands. He was the ninth Sikh Guru and the grandfather of the younger Sahibzadas.
- Coronation of Maharaja Ranjit Singh: This occurred in Lahore (specifically at the Lahore Fort) in 1801, marking the formal beginning of the Sikh Empire.
- First Sikh–Mughal treaty: While there were various negotiations (such as the ones involving Guru Sahiban or later leaders like Banda Singh Bahadur), Fatehgarh Sahib is primarily defined by the sacrifice of the Sahibzadas, not a diplomatic treaty.
In NEWS: Punjab Cabinet clears ₹1,000 monthly dole for women, changes in industrial plot policy
4. Consider the following statements regarding the events preceding the Mahad Satyagraha:
1. The Bole Resolution allowed untouchables to use public water sources.
2. The resolution was effectively implemented across the Bombay Presidency.
3. A satyagraha in Dasgaon in 1926 was a precursor to the Mahad movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Mahad Satyagraha of 1927, led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, was a watershed moment in the struggle against untouchability.
1. The Bole Resolution allowed untouchables to use public water sources.
In 1923, S.K. Bole moved a resolution in the Bombay Legislative Council. This resolution stated that untouchables should be allowed to use all public watering places, wells, and dharamshalas which were built and maintained out of public funds.Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. The resolution was effectively implemented across the Bombay Presidency.
Although the resolution was passed and the Bombay Government issued orders to all Heads of Departments to give effect to it, it remained a “paper reform.” Local bodies (municipalities and local boards) dominated by upper castes refused to implement it. It was this very lack of implementation that forced Dr. Ambedkar to launch the Mahad Satyagraha to physically assert the right to water at the Chardar Tank.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
3. A satyagraha in Dasgaon in 1926 was a precursor to the Mahad movement.
Before the famous 1927 event, a smaller-scale satyagraha took place in Dasgaon (near Mahad) in 1926. This helped mobilize the Depressed Classes in the Konkan region and served as a localized test case for the larger movement that followed at the Chardar Tank in March 1927.Hence statement 3 is correct
In NEWS: A 23-year-old drank water from a well and broke a social order
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2015) Q. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the following events? 1. Mahad Satyagraha 2. Kalaram Temple Entry Satyagraha 3. Poona Pact Options: (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3 (c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1 |
5. With reference to labour codes in India, consider the following statements:
1. Wage calculations may include both cash and in-kind benefits.
2. The government has placed limits on the proportion of in-kind benefits counted as wages.
3. Labour-intensive sectors like tea plantations are unaffected by wage policy changes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Code on Wages, 2019, which seeks to consolidate and simplify four existing labor laws (The Minimum Wages Act, The Payment of Wages Act, The Payment of Bonus Act, and The Equal Remuneration Act), introduced a standardized definition of “wages.”
1. Wage calculations may include both cash and in-kind benefits.
Correct. Under the new Code, “wages” are defined broadly. While the core components are salary/basic pay, dearness allowance, and retaining allowance, the law recognizes that in certain sectors, employees receive non-cash benefits.Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. The government has placed limits on the proportion of in-kind benefits counted as wages.
This is a crucial provision designed to prevent employers from artificially lowering the “cash” component of a salary. The Code stipulates that if the value of specific components (like in-kind benefits, HRA, etc.) exceeds 50% (or a percentage notified by the government) of the total remuneration, the excess amount will be added to the “wages.” This ensures that social security contributions (like EPF and Gratuity) are calculated on a substantial base.Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. Labour-intensive sectors like tea plantations are unaffected by wage policy changes.
Labour-intensive sectors, particularly tea plantations, are some of the most significantly impacted. Traditionally, plantation workers received a large portion of their compensation in kind (housing, rations, medical facilities). The new Code’s 50% limit on “allowances” and “benefits” forces a restructuring of these pay scales, often leading to a higher cash-wage requirement and higher provident fund liabilities for the employers.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In NEWS: Tea body seeks clarity on land transfer policy for plantation workers in poll-bound Assam
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC EPFO (2021) Q. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 provides for: 1. Fixation of minimum time rate of wages. 2. Fixation of minimum piece rate of wages. 3. Fixation of overtime wages. 4. Guaranteed time rate for those on piece work. Select the correct answer: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only (c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 |
6. With reference to land reforms in post-independence India, consider the following statements:
1. Land ceiling laws were intended to impose an upper limit on landholdings and facilitate redistribution of excess land.
2. Certain categories such as plantations and specialized farms were exempted from ceiling limits in several states.
3. The implementation of land reforms has resulted in near-complete elimination of landholding inequalities in rural India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Land ceiling laws were intended to impose an upper limit on landholdings and facilitate redistribution of excess land.
Correct. The primary objective of land ceiling acts was to reduce the concentration of land in the hands of a few (mostly former Zamindars and large landlords). By setting a legal limit on the amount of land an individual or family could own, the government intended to acquire “surplus” land and redistribute it to landless laborers and small marginal farmers. Hence statement 1 is correct/
2. Certain categories such as plantations and specialized farms were exempted from ceiling limits in several states.
This is a significant technical detail of the reform process. To ensure that the production of export-oriented and industrial crops (like tea, coffee, rubber, and sugarcane) was not disrupted by fragmentation, many state laws provided exemptions for plantations. Additionally, “efficiently managed” specialized farms, orchards, and cattle-breeding farms were often excluded from the ceiling limits. Unfortunately, these exemptions were often misused by landlords to bypass the law by labeling their land as “plantations.”. Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. The implementation of land reforms has resulted in near-complete elimination of landholding inequalities in rural India.
While land reforms saw success in specific states like West Bengal (Operation Barga) and Kerala, the national picture is quite different. Factors such as “benami” transactions (registering land in the names of servants or relatives), weak political will, litigation, and the aforementioned exemptions meant that the redistribution of land was far from complete. To this day, landholding remains highly unequal in many parts of India, with a small percentage of large farmers still controlling a disproportionate amount of land.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In NEWS: Tea body seeks clarity on land transfer policy for plantation workers in poll-bound Assam
| PYQ REFERENCE: UPSC (2019) Q. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings. (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless. (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation. (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits. |
7. With reference to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India, consider the following statements:
1. It is responsible for receiving and analysing financial transaction reports.
2. It operates under the Ministry of Finance.
3. It directly conducts criminal investigations and prosecutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) is a specialized multi-disciplinary body that serves as the central national agency for financial intelligence.
1. It is responsible for receiving and analysing financial transaction reports.
The core mandate of FIU-IND is to act as the central reception point for various statutory reports from “Reporting Entities” (banks, stockbrokers, etc.). These include:
- STRs: Suspicious Transaction Reports
- CTRs: Cash Transaction Reports (usually above ₹10 lakh)
- NTRs: Non-Profit Organization Transaction Reports
- CBWTRs: Cross Border Wire Transfer Reports.Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. It operates under the Ministry of Finance.
FIU-IND was established in 2004 and is an independent body reporting directly to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC), which is headed by the Finance Minister. Administratively, it falls under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. It directly conducts criminal investigations and prosecutions.
Incorrect. FIU-IND is an administrative unit, not an investigative or law enforcement agency. Its role is to gather, process, and analyze data to generate “actionable intelligence.” Once it identifies a suspicious pattern, it disseminates that information to relevant enforcement agencies like the Enforcement Directorate (ED), CBI, or Income Tax Department, who then carry out the actual criminal investigations and prosecutions.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In NEWS: FATF report points to India’s action against fraudulent entities
8. Consider the following statements regarding Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs):
1. They include entities facilitating exchange, transfer, or custody of virtual assets.
2. Offshore VASPs (oVASPs) operate entirely outside regulatory oversight.
3. They can be used for money laundering and cross-border value transfer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs) have become a central focus for financial regulators globally, including the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND), due to the rise of cryptocurrencies and digital assets.
1. They include entities facilitating exchange, transfer, or custody of virtual assets.
According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) standards, which India follows, a VASP is any natural or legal person that conducts one or more of the following activities for or on behalf of another person:Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Exchange between virtual assets and fiat currencies.
- Exchange between one or more forms of virtual assets.
- Transfer of virtual assets.
- Safekeeping or administration of virtual assets (custody).
2. Offshore VASPs (oVASPs) operate entirely outside regulatory oversight.
While offshore VASPs operate from outside a specific country’s borders, they are not exempt from regulatory oversight. In India, under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, even offshore VASPs serving the Indian market are required to register with FIU-IND and comply with reporting obligations (like filing Suspicious Transaction Reports). For example, in 2024, India issued show-cause notices to several global offshore crypto exchanges for non-compliance with these regulations.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
3. They can be used for money laundering and cross-border value transfer.
The pseudo-anonymous nature of blockchain transactions and the speed of transfers make VASPs susceptible to being used for money laundering, terrorism financing, and moving value across borders to evade capital controls. This is why they were brought under the “Reporting Entity” framework in India in March 2023.Hence statement 3 is correct.
IN NEWS: FATF report points to India’s action against fraudulent entities.
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2016) Q. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. 3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
9. Consider the following statements regarding the role of Central Reserve Police Force:
1. It acts as a central armed police force deployed in counter-insurgency operations.
2. It operates across State boundaries without jurisdictional limitations of State police.
3. It functions under the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 only
Explanation:
1. It acts as a central armed police force deployed in counter-insurgency operations.
The CRPF is the primary force for internal security in India. Its specialized units, such as CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action), are specifically trained for guerrilla warfare and are extensively deployed in counter-insurgency operations, particularly in Left-Wing Extremism (Naxal-affected) areas and Jammu & Kashmir.Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. It operates across State boundaries without jurisdictional limitations of State police.
While the CRPF is a “Central” force and can be deployed anywhere in India, it generally operates in aid of the civil power (the State government). Unlike a federal investigative agency with overarching powers (like the NIA), the CRPF does not typically exercise independent police powers (like filing FIRs or conducting investigations) unless specifically empowered by a state-specific law or a central notification. Most operations are conducted in coordination with the local State police.Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. It functions under the Ministry of Defence.
The CRPF, along with other Central Armed Police Forces (BSF, CISF, ITBP, SSB, NSG, and Assam Rifles), functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The Ministry of Defence (MoD) is responsible for the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force).Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In NEWS:
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2008) Q. The Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries? (a) Ministry of Defence (b) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests |
10. With reference to the Jungle Cat, consider the following statements:
1. It is listed as “Least Concern” on the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List.
2. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. It prefers dense forests as its primary habitat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Jungle Cat (Felis chaus), also known as the swamp cat or reed cat, is a medium-sized wild cat found throughout the Middle East, South Asia, and parts of Southeast Asia. Despite its name, it is not typically found in “jungles” (dense rainforests).
- It is listed as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List. Globally, the Jungle Cat has a large distribution range and is considered widespread, leading to its classification as Least Concern by the IUCN. However, it is important to note that many regional populations (like those in China and parts of Southeast Asia) are in sharp decline and are locally endangered.Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. In India, the Jungle Cat is traditionally listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (even after the 2022 amendment). Schedule I is reserved for animals requiring the highest level of protection, such as the Tiger, Lion, and Snow Leopard. While hunting it is still prohibited, the penalties are different from those for Schedule I species.Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It prefers dense forests as its primary habitat. Contrary to its name, the Jungle Cat avoids dense forests. It prefers wetlands, reed beds, marshes, littoral areas, and tall grasslands. It is highly adaptable and is often found in scrublands, dry deciduous forests, and even agricultural fields (like sugarcane or rice) near human settlements where rodents are abundantHence statement 3 is incorrect.
IN NEWS: Secretive jungle cats need habitats outside protected areas: study
| PYQ REFERENCE:UPSC (2017) Q. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. (b) It no longer exists in the wild. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (d) Both (b) and (c) are correct. |