1. With reference to President’s rule in India, consider the following statements:
I. The President’s rule can be extended up to 3 years, with approval every six months.
II. The proclamation of President’s rule in a State leads to dissolution of local bodies in a state.
III. The revocation of the President’s rule requires parliamentary approval within one month of revocation.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (b) II and III only
Explanation:
In NEWS: President’s rule ends in Manipur; CM sworn in
President’s Rule:
- President’s Rule (Article 356) in India is the suspension of a state government, placing it under direct central control following a constitutional machinery failure, often leaving the legislative assembly suspended rather than immediately dissolved.
Grounds for Imposition
President’s Rule may be imposed when:
- No party/coalition able to form government.
- Loss of majority by ruling government.
- Breakdown of coalition.
- Failure to follow constitutional provisions.
- Law and order collapse.
- Election impossibility (war, disaster, etc.).
- Governor reports constitutional breakdown.
Constitutional Basis: Invoked under Article 356 when state governance cannot proceed according to the Constitution, or under Article 365 if a state fails to comply with central directions.
Suspension of State Functions: The President assumes all or some executive powers of the state. The Governor acts on behalf of the Union government.
Legislative Assembly Status: The state legislature is usually either dissolved or suspended (suspended animation), allowing for potential revival if a new government can be formed without fresh elections.
Dissolution of the local bodies, not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State. Hence statement II is incorrect. (PYQ)
Parliamentary Control: Parliament passes the state budget and makes laws for the state.
Duration and Extension: Initial approval holds for six months. It can be extended up to 3 years, with approval every six months, subject to checks. Hence statement I is correct.
Recent Example: President’s Rule was imposed in Manipur on Feb 13, 2025, due to ethnic violence, with the Assembly suspended, before being revoked in Feb 2026.
Revocation: President’s Rule can be revoked by the President at any time via a subsequent proclamation, which does not require parliamentary approval. Hence statement III is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
2. Which of the following objectives are included under the PRITHvi VIgyan Scheme?
1. Development of modelling systems for weather and climate prediction
2. Exploration of polar and high seas regions
3. Development of technologies for sustainable ocean resource utilization
4. Management of forest biodiversity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: PARLIAMENT QUESTION
PRITHvi VIgyan:
- The PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) scheme is an overarching Indian government initiative by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), aimed at holistic Earth system understanding for societal benefit, combining five sub-schemes.
- The key feature of the PRITHVI scheme is to holistically address all the five components of the earth system namely atmosphere, hydrosphere, geosphere, cryosphere and biosphere to improve the understanding of the Earth System Sciences and to provide reliable services for the country.
- These services include weather forecasts (both on land and in the Oceans) and warnings for various natural disasters like tropical cyclones, storm surge, floods, heat waves, thunderstorm and lightning; alerts for Tsunamis and monitoring of earthquakes, etc.
Sub-Schemes:
- ACROSS: Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (Now merged with Mission Mausam).
- O-SMART: Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology.
- PACER: Polar Science and Cryosphere Research.
- SAGE: Seismology and Geosciences.
- REACHOUT: Research, Education, Training and Outreach.
The main objectives of PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) Scheme are:
- To augment and sustain long-term observations of the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth to record the vital signs of the Earth System and change.
- To undertake R&D in the field of atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth and set up the required infrastructure.
- To develop modelling systems for predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change. Hence 1 is correct.
- To monitor earthquake activity and undertake seismic hazard assessment.
- To explore polar and high seas regions of the Earth towards discovery of new phenomena and resources. Hence 2 is correct.
- To develop technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications. Hence 3 is correct.
- To translate knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental and economic benefits.
- Support various R &D activities in the thrust areas of different components of Earth System Sciences.
- Develop skilled and trained manpower in Earth Sciences.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I, II and III (b) I only (c) II and III only (d) I and II only |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2223585®=3&lang=1
3. Which of the following organisations has been designated as the India Centre for BRICS Industrial Competencies?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Productivity Council
(c) Invest India
(d) National Skill Development Corporation
Answer: (b) National Productivity Council
Explanation:
In NEWS: India Joins BRICS Centre for Industrial Competencies to Support Manufacturing and MSMEs
BRICS Centre for Industrial Competencies (BCIC):
- The BRICS Centre for Industrial Competencies (BCIC) is a multilateral platform launched in partnership with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) to enhance the competitiveness of manufacturing companies and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) across the BRICS and BRICS Plus nations.
- It empowers manufacturing companies to embrace digital innovation, driving their ability to innovate, expand, and scale across the BRICS region and beyond.
India and BCIC:
- India has joined the BRICS Centre for Industrial Competencies (BCIC) to provide integrated support services to manufacturing companies and MSMEs across BRICS countries.
- The event marking India’s participation was organised by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in New Delhi.
- The National Productivity Council (NPC) has been designated as the India Centre for BRICS Industrial Competencies. Hence option (b) is correct.
- NPC will lead India’s engagement with BCIC and focus on:
- Capacity building
- Productivity enhancement
- Adoption of advanced manufacturing practices.
The National Productivity Council (NPC):
- The National Productivity Council (NPC) is an autonomous, multipartite, non-profit organization established in 1958 by the Ministry of Industry (now the Ministry of Commerce and Industry).
- It serves as a think tank to promote “productivity culture” and efficiency across the Indian economy.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) Lead Bank Scheme (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (d) National Skill Development Mission |
4. Consider the following statements with respect to Swachhata Pakhwada Awards 2025:
I. The Swachhata Pakhwada Awards are an annual initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
II. The Visakhapatnam Port Authority (VPA) secured the First Prize in 2025
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and I
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
In NEWS: Paradip Port Authority Wins First Prize at Swachhata Pakhwada Awards 2025
Swachhata Pakhwada Awards:
- The Swachhata Pakhwada Awards are an annual initiative of the Ministry of Ports,Shipping and Waterways, evaluating ports and maritime institutions across the country. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- Organizations are rated based on innovative activities, mass mobilization (Jan Bhagidari), green initiatives (such as Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam), and the welfare of sanitation workers (Safai Mitra Suraksha).
- Paradip Port Authority (PPA): Won the First Prize at the 2025 awards for its excellence in cleanliness, sustainability, and community participation. Hence statement II is incorrect.
- Visakhapatnam Port Authority (VPA): Secured the First Prize in 2024, improving from its third-place finish in 2023.
Major Initiatives by Paradip Port
Jan Bhagidari (Public Participation)
- Cleanliness drives in: Schools, Heritage sites, Temples, Beaches, Ponds and Port premises.
Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam Initiative
- Plantation drives to create green zones.
- Around 40,000 saplings planted at Paradip Sea Beach.
Safai Mitra Suraksha
- Welfare and safety initiatives for sanitation workers.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2222852®=3&lang=1
5. Consider the following statements with reference to Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) technology:
I. SFDR carries an oxidizer onboard instead of taking oxygen from the atmosphere
II. India becomes the first country to successfully test the SFDR technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and I
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
In NEWS: DRDO demonstrates SFDR technology, India joins elite missile capability club. This achievement places India in an elite group of nations, including the USA, Russia, France, China, and Turkey—that have mastered ramjet-powered missile technology. Hence statement II is incorrect
Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR):
- Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) is a missile propulsion system being developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- The technology aims to power future long-range air-to-air missiles and can also be applied to surface-to-air missiles.
- SFDR uses a solid-fuelled air-breathing ramjet engine, which takes oxygen from the atmosphere instead of carrying oxidizer onboard. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- The system includes:
- Thrust-modulated ducted rocket
- Nozzle-less missile booster
- Hot gas flow controller for thrust modulation.
Advantages over Conventional Rocket Propulsion
- Greater range and endurance.
- Better no-escape zone (important in air-to-air combat).
- Improved speed control through thrust modulation.
- Higher efficiency at supersonic speeds.
- Increased payload capacity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocketpowered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
6. With reference to India’s blue economy, consider the following statements:
1. The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has launched the first open-sea Marine Fish Farming and Seaweed Cultivation project in the Andaman Sea focusing on deep-water seaweed cultivation.
2. The Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has initiated the Seaweed Mission to make seaweed cultivation remunerative, eco-friendly and sustainable.
3. Under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), the government has established a Multipurpose Seaweed Park in Tamil Nadu and a Seaweed Brood Bank in Daman and Diu.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
In NEWS: PARLIAMENT QUESTION
Progress under Blue Economy In India:
- The Government of India is promoting seaweed cultivation, along with marine fish farming, as a key component for developing the Andaman & Nicobar Islands as a hub for the Blue Economy.
- The Council for Scientific and Industrial Research’s (CSIR) -Central Salt and Marine Chemicals Research Institute (CSMCRI) has undertaken the project ‘Prefeasibility studies and establishment of pilot-scale farming of commercial seaweeds in Andaman coast’.
- It has conducted a comprehensive analysis of 25 different locations in order to identify the most optimal sites for seaweed farming.
- Further, National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), an autonomous institute under Ministry of Earth Sciences has launched the first-ever open-sea Marine Fish Farming and Seaweed Cultivation project in the Andaman Sea focussing on deep-water seaweed cultivation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- In addition, CSIR has initiated the Seaweed Mission to generate knowledge and innovations that will help make seaweed cultivation a remunerative, eco-friendly, sustainable, and scalable form of agriculture.
- Under the Seaweed mission implemented by CSIR, more than 800 self-help groups (SHGs) in Tamil Nadu have adopted Kappaphycus cultivation as means of their livelihood. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Government has taken specific initiatives to scale up seaweed production to achieve the target of 1.12 million tonnes by 2030, primarily under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
- The Government has made significant investments to promote the seaweed sector, including an allocation of ₹194.09 crore for key infrastructure projects such as the establishment of a Multipurpose Seaweed Park in Tamil Nadu and a Seaweed Brood Bank in Daman and Diu. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- In addition, Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute’s (CMFRI) Mandapam centre has been identified as the Centre of Excellence for seaweed cultivation and as the Nodal Institute for the establishment of the Nucleus Breeding Centre (NBC) by the Department of Fisheries, Government of India, under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
- It has been launched to support research, improved farming practices and seed bank development, with the potential to benefit over 20,000 farmers and generate more than 5,000 employment opportunities.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2223594®=3&lang=1
7. With reference to the Devnimori Relics of Lord Buddha, consider the following statements:
1. The exposition of Devnimori Relics at Gangaramaya Temple in Colombo marked their first public veneration outside India.
2. The Devnimori archaeological site is located in the present-day state of Gujarat.
3. India has earlier organised expositions of Kapilavastu and Sarnath relics in Sri Lanka.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
In NEWS: Sacred Devnimori Relics of Lord Buddha arrive in Sri Lanka with full state honours
- The Exposition of the Holy Devnimori Relics was inaugurated in 4th February, 2026 at the revered Gangaramaya Temple, Colombo.
- The arrival and exposition of the Holy Devnimori Relics of Lord Buddha in Sri Lanka mark a moment of profound spiritual, cultural, and civilisational significance, further strengthening the enduring bonds between India and Sri Lanka rooted in their shared Buddhist heritage.
- The arrival of the Sacred Relics coincided with Sri Lanka’s 78th Independence Day, adding special significance to the event. This Exposition represents the first public veneration of the Devnimori Relics outside India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Two exhibitions titled “Unearthing the Sacred Piprahwa” and “Sacred Relic and Cultural Engagement of Contemporary India” were also inaugurated at the Gangaramaya Temple as part of the exposition.
- Earlier, India had organised expositions of the Kapilavastu Relics in 2012 and the Sarnath Relics in 2018 in Sri Lanka. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The site is variously dated to the 3rd century or 4th century CE, or circa 400 CE. Its location was associated with trade routes and caravans in the area of Gujarat. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Site excavations have yielded Buddhist artifacts dated prior to 8th-century in the lowest layer, mixed Buddhist and Hindu artwork from the Gurjara-Pratihara period in the middle, topped by Muslim glazed ware attributed to the 14th century.
Major Archaeological Discoveries at Devnimori
- Remains of a Buddhist Stupa
- Structural foundations of monastic complexes (Vihara)
- Brick-built architectural elements
- stone sculptures and architectural fragmentsThese discoveries indicate a well-planned religious establishment.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2223547®=3&lang=1
8. With reference to cheetahs, consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic cheetahs are found only in the central plateau of Iran.
2. The African cheetah is genomically closest to prehistoric cheetahs discovered in Saudi Arabia.
3. No evidence of surviving Asiatic cheetahs exists in India today.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation:
In NEWS: Could the near-extinct Asiatic cheetah rewild Saudi Arabia?
- Asiatic cheetahs (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) are the critically endangered subspecies of cheetah.
- Only around 50 individuals remain in the wild, all in Iran, mainly in the central plateau. They are extinct in India and elsewhere in their former range. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Scientists discovered naturally mummified cheetahs and skeletal remains in caves of Saudi Arabia.
- The remains, unearthed from the Lauga cave network in the Arar area of northern Saudi Arabia, dated back to 4,223 years ago and some to just over a century ago, giving scientists a valuable opportunity to understand the evolutionary history of cheetahs in their former range
- Genomic sequencing revealed the presence of two subspecies: Asiatic cheetah and north-western African cheetah.
- Prehistoric Saudi cheetahs were genomically closest to the North-western African subspecies. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Cheetahs became extinct in India in 1952 due to hunting and habitat loss. No evidence of surviving Asiatic cheetahs exists in India today. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- India has reintroduced African cheetahs under Project Cheetah, not Asiatic cheetahs.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. Consider the following: 1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
9. Mt Aconcagua is located in
(a) Congo
(b) Brazil
(c) Argentina
(d) Canada
Answer: (c) Argentina
Explanation:
In NEWS: Raksha Mantri flags-off NIM-JIM&WS joint expedition to Argentina’s Mt Aconcagua. The joint expedition is being undertaken by the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi and Jawahar Institute of Mountaineering & Winter Sports (JIM&WS), Pahalgam.
Mt Aconcagua:
- It is located in Argentina, near the border with Chile in South America.
- The mountain at 6,961 metres stands as the highest peak of South America and the highest mountain outside Asia.
- Aconcagua is the highest mountain in the Andes mountain range.
- Aconcagua is part of the Seven Summits — the highest mountains on each continent.
- The mountain lies within the Aconcagua Provincial Park.
- The mountain was formed mainly due to the subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) Only five |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2223636®=3&lang=1
10. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika’, Rajuka’ and Yukta’ were important officers at the
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration
Answer: (b) district-level administration
Explanation:
- Ashokan inscriptions, particularly the third rock edict, indicate that the Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were important officers at the district-level administration. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Pradeshika: The overall head of the district, responsible for administration, law, and order.
- Rajuka: Rural administrators in charge of land measurement, boundary-fixing, and judicial functions, similar to modern district collectors.
- Yukta: Subordinate officials assisting with accounts, records, and secretarial work.