1. Which among the following states attained statehood in the year 1972?
1. Manipur
2. Nagaland
3. Meghalaya
4. Tripura
5. Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister extends greetings to the people of Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura on their Statehood Day
Early Independence & Reorganization (1947-1956)
1950: Constitution adopted, establishing Part A, B, C states.
1956 (States Reorganisation Act): Major redrawing of states; Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka, Madras (later Tamil Nadu) formed.
Linguistic Reorganization (1960s-1970s)
1960: Gujarat & Maharashtra carved from Bombay State.
1963: Nagaland formed.
1972: Manipur, Meghalaya, & Tripura formed from Assam/UTs. Hence option (b) is correct.
1975: Sikkim became a state.
North-East & Post-1980s
1987: Arunachal Pradesh & Goa became states.
1990s: UTs of Delhi and Puducherry saw changes.
21st Century Formations
2000: Chhattisgarh (from MP), Uttarakhand (from UP), Jharkhand (from Bihar).
2014: Telangana formed from Andhra Pradesh.
2019: Jammu & Kashmir bifurcated into two UTs (J&K and Ladakh).
Other Developments
Tamil Nadu: Nov 1, 1956 (as Madras State).
Odisha (Orissa): Formed 1936, statehood 1950, renamed 2011.
Telangana: June 2, 2014.
Chhattisgarh: Nov 1, 2000.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following pairs: State Description 1. Arunachal Pradesh – The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks 2. Nagaland – The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act 3. Tripura – Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory in 1956, and later attained full statehood How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2216659®=3&lang=1
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2216658®=3&lang=1
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2216657®=3&lang=1
2. With reference to Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements:
I. It is an old age income security scheme for a savings account holder in the age group of 18-60 years who is not an income tax-payee.
II. Each subscriber under APY shall receive a guaranteed minimum pension after the age of 60 years until death.
III. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.
IV. Subscriber contribution to APY shall be made through the facility of ‘auto-debit’ of the prescribed contribution amount from the savings bank account of the subscriber
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (d) II, III and IV
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cabinet approves continuation of Atal Pension Yojana (APY) and extension of funding support for promotional and developmental activities and gap funding till 2030-31
Atal Pension Yojana (APY):
- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old age income security scheme for a savings account holder in the age group of 18-40 years who is not an income tax-payee. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- The scheme helps in addressing the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganized sector and encourages the workers to voluntarily save for their retirement.
- The scheme is mainly targeted at the poor, the under-privileged and workers in the unorganized sector.
- Contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS) under section 80CCD(1).
Eligibility
- The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum is 40 years.
- The age of exit and start of pension is 60 years.
- Subscriber contribution to APY shall be made through the facility of ‘auto-debit’ of the prescribed contribution amount from the savings bank account of the subscriber on monthly, quarterly or half-yearly basis. Hence statement IV is correct.
- The subscribers are required to contribute the prescribed contribution amount from the age of joining APY till the age of 60 years.
Benefits
Upon exit on attaining 60 years, The subscriber shall receive the following three benefits on attaining the age of 60:
(i) Guaranteed minimum pension amount: Each subscriber under APY shall receive a guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1000/- per month or Rs. 2000/- per month or Rs. 3000/- per month or Rs. 4000/- per month or Rs. 5000/- per month, after the age of 60 years until death. Hence statement II is correct.
(ii) Guaranteed minimum pension amount to the spouse: After the subscriber’s demise, the spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as that of the subscriber,until death. Hence statement III is correct.
(iii) Return of the pension wealth to the nominee of the subscriber: After the demise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the nominee of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the pension wealth, as accumulated till the subscriber’s age of 60 years.
Voluntary exit (Exit before 60 Years of age):
- The subscriber shall be refunded only the contributions made by him to APY along with the net actual accrued income earned on his contributions (after deducting the account maintenance charges).
- However, in case of subscribers who joined the scheme before 31st March 2016 and have received the Government Co-Contribution, shall not receive the same including the accrued income earned thereon.
For death before 60 years
Option 1: In case of death of the subscriber before 60 years, option will be available to the spouse of the subscriber to continue contribution in the APY account of the subscriber, which can be maintained in the spouse’s name, for the remaining vesting period, till the original subscriber would have attained the age of 60 years. The spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as the subscriber until death of the spouse. Such APY account and pension amount would be in addition even if the spouse has his/her APY account and pension amount in own name.
Option 2: The entire accumulated pension corpus till date under APY will be returned to the spouse / nominee.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers. 2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme. 3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2216727®=3&lang=1
3. With reference to Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a government-backed small savings scheme launched under the “Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao” campaign in 2015.
2. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana account can be opened at any India Post office or branch of any Public Sector Bank only and is transferable to any location within India.
3. Investments made under the scheme qualify for tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: From Savings to Strength: Empowering India’s Girls Through Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana:
- Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a government-backed small savings scheme launched under the “Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao” campaign in 2015. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is designed specifically to build a fund for a girl child’s future education and marriage expenses.
- Parents or legal guardians can open an account for their Indian girl child at any India Post office or branch of any Public Sector Bank and authorised Private Sector Banks (HDFC Bank, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank and IDBI Bank). Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- The account may be opened anytime from the birth of the girl child until she attains the age of 10 years.
- Only one Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana account is permitted per girl child, and a family can open accounts for a maximum of two girl children.
- However, more than two accounts are allowed in cases of twins or triplets, subject to submission of an affidavit along with the relevant birth certificates.
- The account is transferable to any location within India.
- Notably, the account is managed by the parent/ guardian until the girl child reaches the age of eighteen.
- This allows the guardian to oversee the savings and ensure that the funds are utilized effectively for the child’s education and future needs.
- Upon turning eighteen, the account holder can take control of the account herself by submitting the necessary documents.
- Parents and guardians can start with a minimum initial deposit of ₹250 in the SSY account, and subsequent deposits can be made in multiples of ₹50, provided that at least ₹250 is deposited in a financial year.
- The total annual deposit limit is capped at ₹1,50,000- any excess amount will not earn interest and will be returned.
- Deposits can be made for a period of up to fifteen years from the account opening date.
- Calculated every month, the interest is added to the account at the end of each financial year.
- An account holder may withdraw up to 50% of the balance available at the end of the preceding financial year for educational purposes. This facility becomes available once the account holder attains the age of eighteen or passes the tenth standard, whichever occurs earlier.
- Investments made under the scheme qualify for tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2216748®=3&lang=1
4. Consider the following statements regarding the India-AI Impact Summit 2026:
I. It is the first global AI summit hosted in the Global South.
II. The summit focuses exclusively on Artificial Intelligence applications in the defence and nuclear sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Inclusive AI for India in focus at AI Impact Summit 2026 official pre-event hosted by AI4India, Intel and IHFC
India-AI Impact Summit 2026:
- The India–AI Impact Summit 2026 is the first global AI summit hosted in the Global South. Hence statement I is correct.
- Dates: 16–20 February 2026; Venue: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
- Duration: Five-day programme covering policy, research, industry, and public engagement.
- Foundational pillars (Sutras): People, Planet, Progress.
- India AI Impact Expo: Over 400 exhibitors, seven thematic pavilions, ~1.5 lakh visitors expected.
- AI is a key enabler for India’s development, strengthening governance, public service delivery, and inclusive growth.
AI applications include:
1. Healthcare: Telemedicine, AI diagnostics, disease outbreak prediction, AI-driven drug discovery.
2. Agriculture & Rural Economy: Crop prediction, precision farming, drone monitoring, market price prediction.
3. Education: Personalized learning, AI tutors, multilingual content delivery.
4. Finance & Commerce: Fraud detection, digital transactions, AI-powered credit scoring, chatbots.
5. Governance & Public Services: Smart city management, translation of court judgments, improved service delivery. Hence statement II is correct.
- Strategic initiatives: IndiaAI Mission, AI compute infrastructure, promotion of indigenous AI models, capacity-building programs.
- Seven Chakras for multilateral cooperation:
1. Human Capital – AI reskilling ecosystem.
2. Inclusion for Social Empowerment – citizen-centric AI solutions.
3. Safe and Trusted AI – responsible and interoperable AI governance.
4. Resilience, Innovation, and Efficiency – sustainable AI adoption.
5. Science – accelerate research in health, agriculture, climate.
6. Democratizing AI Resources – equitable access to AI for startups, researchers, institutions.
7. AI for Economic Growth & Social Good – inclusive growth through high-impact AI use cases.
- Pre-Summit and Regional AI Conferences are organized for early consultations, stakeholder engagement, and sectoral benchmarking.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements regarding Al Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdocs/documents/2026/jan/doc2026120762701.pdf
5. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Light Water Reactor (LWR) and nuclear programme:
1. Light Water Reactor (LWR) use ordinary water as both coolant and moderator and are fueled by enriched uranium.
2. The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private companies to set up nuclear power plants and undertake import/export of nuclear fuel and technology.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: India flags the Indigenous Light Water Reactor (LWR) as nuclear priority. But why?
Light Water Reactor (LWR):
- LWRs are nuclear reactors using ordinary water (H₂O) as coolant and moderator, fueled by enriched uranium. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Global Significance:
- Account for over 85% of civil nuclear reactor capacity worldwide.
- Widely used by USA, Russia, France, and other countries due to lower construction cost, simpler design, thermal efficiency.
Advantages over Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs):
- Simpler design and engineering, resembling conventional thermal power technology Lower construction cost due to economies of scale
- Higher thermal efficiency
- Access to enriched uranium fuel is easier globally
India’s Indigenous LWR:
- 900 MWe LWR project initiated in 2015, currently a priority for fabrication
- Indigenous LWR helps leverage foreign imports, integrate India into global nuclear supply chains, and enter export market
SHANTI Act, 2025
Full form: Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025
Purpose:
- Opens India’s nuclear sector to private companies
- Allows import, export, transport, storage of nuclear fuel, technology, and equipment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Aligns India’s regulations with global nuclear commerce norms
India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme
Stage 1: Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs)
- Uses natural uranium fuel and heavy water (D₂O) as coolant & moderator
- Produces electricity and plutonium (Pu-239) for next stage
- Supplemented by imported LWRs
Stage 2: Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs)
- Uses plutonium-based fuel
- Converts fertile thorium (Th-232) into fissile uranium-233 (U-233)
- Enhances nuclear capacity via breeding more fissile material
Stage 3: Advanced Reactors (Th-U233 Cycle)
- Uses U-233 produced from Stage 2
- Advanced thermal reactors and fast breeder reactors (e.g., AHWR) for long-term energy security
- Future option: Molten Salt Reactors
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2011) Q. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to (a) Slow down the speed of neutrons (b) Increase the speed of neutrons (c) Cool down the reactor (d) Both (a) and (c) |
6. Consider the following statements about the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
1. NBWL is a statutory body constituted in 2003 under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the National Board for Wildlife.
3. The Standing Committee of NBWL is chaired by the Minister of Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
4. The NBWL has the power to advise both the Central and State Governments on wildlife protection and controlling poaching or illegal trade
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: How did the National Board for Wildlife approve the Kaziranga elevated corridors and highway expansion?
National Board for Wildlife:
- Statutory Status: NBWL is a statutory body established in 2003 after the 2002 amendment of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Genesis:
- In 1952, the Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted as an advisory body.
- First Chairman of IBWL: Sri Jayachamaraja Wadiyar, Maharaja of Mysore.
- IBWL contributions include:
- Drafting the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- Establishment of Gir National Park for Asiatic lions
- Declaring the tiger as India’s national animal
- Composition of NBWL:
- Chairperson: Prime Minister of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Vice-Chairperson: Union Minister in charge of Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
- Member-Secretary: Additional Director General of Forests (WL) & Director, Wildlife Preservation
- Five members represent non-governmental organisations (nominated by Central Government)
- Ten members nominated from eminent conservationists, ecologists, environmentalists
- Standing Committee:
- NBWL has a Standing Committee to exercise powers delegated by the Board.
- Chairperson of Standing Committee: Minister of Environment, Forest & Climate Change. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Functions of NBWL:
- Promote conservation and development of wildlife and forests
- Frame policies and advise Central and State Governments on wildlife protection and controlling poaching/illegal trade. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- Recommend setting up and management of national parks, sanctuaries, and protected areas
- Restrict or regulate activities in protected areas
- Conduct or supervise impact assessment of projects affecting wildlife or habitats
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
7. “Kaladi”, recently in the news for upscaling under the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative, is:
(a) A millet-based product from Chhattisgarh
(b) A traditional dairy product from Udhampur, Jammu & Kashmir
(c) A herbal medicinal formulation from Himachal Pradesh
(d) A fermented fish product from Odisha
Answer: (b) A traditional dairy product from Udhampur, Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
In NEWS: Udhamapur’s GI-tagged “Kaladi” to be upscaled for diverse food recipes using advanced food technologies
Kaladi – GI-tagged Traditional Dairy Product of Udhampur
- Traditional stretchy, milky cheese-like dairy product from Udhampur district, Jammu & Kashmir. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Made from raw full-fat milk using whey water as a coagulant.
- Nicknamed the “Mozzarella of Jammu” due to its stretchable texture.
- Recently received Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Government Initiative
- ODOP (One District One Product) program identifies Kaladi for technology-driven upscaling and market expansion.
- Focus on:
- Value addition
- Shelf-life enhancement
- Diversification into new food recipes
- National and international marketing
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2217025®=3&lang=1
8. “Justice Mission 2025”, a military exercise conducted by which among the following countries?
(a) United States
(b) China
(c) Taiwan
(d) Japan
Answer: (b) China
Explanation:
In NEWS: What is behind China’s latest military drills around Taiwan?
Justice Mission-2025:
- China conducted the “Justice Mission – 2025” military drill around Taiwan on 29 – 30 December 2025. Hence option (c) is correct.
- The drill aimed to safeguard China’s sovereignty, deter Taiwanese separatists, and counter foreign interference.
- Focus areas included sea and air combat readiness, blockade of key ports, and three-dimensional deterrence using land, sea, and air forces.
- On Day 1, the PLA conducted 130 air sorties, of which 90 crossed the Taiwan Strait centreline.
- On Day 2, 10 long-range rockets landed in Taiwan’s contiguous zone, the closest ever to the island.
9. How many of the following articles in the constitution of India acts as a safeguard against child trafficking?
1. Article 23
2. Article 24
3. Article 39
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
In NEWS: How should India tackle child trafficking? | Explained
Child trafficking:
- Child trafficking in India remains a serious violation of children’s rights involving recruitment, transportation, or harbouring of children for exploitation.
- The crime violates fundamental rights such as the right to life, dignity, and freedom from exploitation, and persists due to poverty, migration, lack of education, and weak protections.
Legal & Constitutional Framework
India has a robust legal framework to protect children and prosecute traffickers:
A. Constitutional Provisions
- Article 23 — prohibits human trafficking and forced labour.
- Article 24 — prohibits the employment of children in hazardous occupations.
- Article 39(e) — the tender age of children are not abused
- Article 39(f) — that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.
Hence all are correct.
B. Key Laws
- Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 — safeguards children against sexual abuse with child‑friendly trial mechanisms.
- Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (ITPA), 1956 — addresses trafficking for sexual purposes.
- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 — focuses on care, protection, rehabilitation and reintegration of trafficked and vulnerable children.
- Criminal Offences under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 — trafficking is criminalised including abduction, deceit, coercion and exploitation.
C. Institutional Framework
- National & State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights — statutory bodies protecting child rights across India.
- Anti Trafficking Cell (MHA) — coordinates law enforcement responses and interstate cooperation.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 29 |
10. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar
Explanation:
- The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal. It is named because it lies approximately on the 10-degree line of north latitude. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Nicobar and Sumatra: These are separated by the Great Channel, also known as the Six Degree Channel. Sumatra is an island of Indonesia located to the south of the Great Nicobar Island.
- Maldives and Lakshadweep: These are island groups located in the Arabian Sea. They are separated by the Eight Degree Channel.
- The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from the main Lakshadweep archipelago.
- Sumatra and Java: These are major islands of Indonesia separated by the Sunda Strait.