1. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides for which of the following?
1. Establishment of Lok Adalats
2. Free and competent legal services to weaker sections
3. Promotion of alternative dispute resolution
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM Modi Inaugurates National Conference on Strengthening Legal Aid Delivery at Supreme Court
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
- Constituted under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (came into force in 1995).
- Objective: To provide free and competent legal services to weaker sections of society and ensure that justice is not denied due to economic or social barriers.
Constitutional Basis
Article 39A of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Directs the State to provide free legal aid to ensure equal justice for all.
Structure
| Level | Body | Head |
| National | NALSA | Chief Justice of India (Patron-in-Chief) Second senior-most Supreme Court Judge (Executive Chairperson) |
| State | SLSA – State Legal Services Authority | Chief Justice of High Court (Patron-in-Chief) |
| District | DLSA – District Legal Services Authority | District Judge as Chairman |
| Taluk | TLSC – Taluk Legal Services Committee | Senior Civil Judge as Chairman |
Functions of NALSA
1. Provide free legal aid and representation to the poor and marginalized.
2. Organize Lok Adalats for amicable dispute settlement.
3. Spread legal awareness and literacy among citizens.
4. Promote alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanisms.
5. Frame schemes for vulnerable groups – women, children, SC/ST, senior citizens, victims of trafficking, etc.
6. Monitor and coordinate the functioning of SLSAs, DLSAs, and TLSCs.
Major Schemes by NALSA
1. Free Legal Services Scheme – Legal representation for economically weaker and disadvantaged sections.
2. Victim Compensation Scheme – Financial support to victims of crime.
3. Legal Literacy and Awareness Programme – Grassroots awareness drives.
4. Lok Adalats / Permanent Lok Adalats – For pre-litigation and pending cases.
5. Front Offices in Courts – To assist litigants in availing legal aid.
6. Nyaya Bandhu (Pro Bono Legal Services) – In collaboration with the Department of Justice.
Hence all the statements are correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2013) Q. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 |
2. Consider the following statements with respect to Pay commissions in India:
I. A Pay commission is appointed by the Home minister of India.
II. It revises retirement benefits, gratuity and leave encashment.
III. The 7th Pay Commission constituted in 2014 is significant for the introduction of a simplified pay matrix.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (b) II and III only
Explanation:
In NEWS: What is the role of a pay commission? | Explained
Pay Commission:
- A Pay Commission is a government-appointed body that reviews and recommends salaries, allowances, pensions, and other service conditions for central government employees and defense personnel.
- Objective: To ensure fair and updated remuneration for employees in line with economic conditions and inflation.
- Appointed by: The President of India. Hence statement I is incorrect.
Key Roles of Pay Commissions:
- Revise Pay Scales – for central government employees and defense personnel.
- Update Allowances – house rent, travel, dearness allowance, and others.
- Revise Pension Rules – including retirement benefits, gratuity, leave encashment. Hence statement II is correct.
- Rationalize Pay Structure – simplify pay bands and remove disparities.
- Improve Employee Morale – ensure fair compensation in line with economic growth.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of Rs 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45 % of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV |
3. With reference to India–Angola relations, consider the following statements:
1. Angola is India’s second-largest trading partner in Africa after Nigeria.
2. Both India and Angola are members of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and cooperate within the Global South framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Energy cooperation foundation of India-Angola trade ties, says President
India–Angola Relations:
Historical Background
- India supported Angola’s liberation movement from Portuguese colonial rule (1970s).
- Diplomatic relations established: 1985. 40 years of diplomatic ties celebrated in 2025.
- Both countries are members of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and cooperate in the Global South framework. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Key Agreements & MoUs (2025)
- Energy cooperation – Expansion in oil, gas, and renewable energy sectors.
- Angola joined the International Solar Alliance (ISA) → 123rd member nation.
- Defence LoC of US $200 million by India for defence procurement and capacity building.
- MoUs in:
- Traditional medicine (Ayurveda)
- Agriculture and food processing
- Culture and education exchange (2025-2029)
Economic & Trade Relations
- Bilateral trade: ~US $4.2 billion (2022-23)
- India’s exports: Pharmaceuticals, rice, machinery, textiles.
- Imports from Angola: Crude oil, LNG, diamonds.
- Angola = India’s 2nd largest trading partner in Africa (after Nigeria). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Indian companies active in oil exploration, diamonds, telecom, and pharmaceuticals.
Strategic Importance
- Energy security: Angola is a reliable crude oil source for India.
- Critical minerals: Opportunity for Indian investment in diamond and mineral mining.
- Defence cooperation: Training, supply, and joint manufacturing potential.
- Part of India’s “Focus Africa” and “Vision for Global South” initiatives.
Multilateral Cooperation
- Collaboration in UN, AU, NAM, G-77, and ISA.
- Supports India’s reform of UNSC and African representation in global governance.
- India’s engagement aligns with “India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS)” vision.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements : Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct |
4. Recent studies have found that the pace of global warming has accelerated. If this continues, what are the most possible consequences that will happen in the near future?
1. Warm-water corals are undergoing near-irreversible die-offs due to marine heatwaves.
2. The Amazon rainforest is at risk of turning into savannah if deforestation and warming persist.
3. Greenland Ice Sheet melt could destabilize the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC).
4. Antarctic sea ice is declining, reducing phytoplankton growth and worsening carbon imbalance.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Explanation:
In NEWS: What’s the latest in climate science?
Latest in Climate Science:
Accelerating Global Warming
- Global average temperature is rising at 0.27°C per decade, about 50% faster than the rate (0.2°C) seen in the 1990s–2000s.
- 2023, 2024, and parts of 2025 have recorded new temperature highs.
- The world has already warmed by 1.3 – 1.4°C since the pre-industrial period.
- The 1.5°C threshold is likely to be crossed around 2030, leading to potential irreversible climate impacts.
Rising Sea Levels
- Sea level rise has accelerated to 4.5 mm per year over the last decade (up from 1.85 mm/year since 1900).
- Melting glaciers and thermal expansion are major contributors.
- Threatens coastal populations, island nations, and marine ecosystems.
Emerging Climate Tipping Points
- Warm-water corals are undergoing near-irreversible die-offs due to marine heatwaves – possibly the first major tipping point.
- The Amazon rainforest is at risk of turning into savannah if deforestation and warming persist.
- Greenland Ice Sheet melt could destabilize the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) which is critical for Europe’s mild winters.
- Antarctic sea ice is declining, reducing phytoplankton growth and worsening carbon imbalance.
Hence all the statements are correct.
Escalating Wildfires
- Between March 2024–Feb 2025, wildfires burned 3.7 million sq. km — roughly the size of India + Norway combined.
- Though slightly below the 20-year average in area, CO₂ emissions from fires were higher than previous years.
- Fires linked to heatwaves, drought, and land-use change.
Deadly Heat and Human Impacts
- Around half of the global population faces heat-related health risks.
- Worker productivity drops by 2–3% for each degree above 20°C.
- Economic losses exceeded $1 trillion in 2024 due to heat-related productivity declines.
- Heat impacts are particularly severe in tropical and developing regions.
5. With reference to Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) in India, consider the following statements:
1. SOC content is generally higher in colder and high-altitude regions compared to hot plains.
2. Imbalanced use of fertilisers, especially excessive urea, has been found to reduce SOC levels.
3. SOC helps in improving the soil’s water-holding capacity and nutrient availability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Climate change, imbalance in fertilizer use impacts soil’s organic carbon: ICAR study
Soil Organic Carbon (SOC):
- Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) refers to the carbon component of organic compounds present in the soil.
- It originates from:
- Plant residues (leaves, roots, crop stubble)
- Animal residues
- Microbial biomass and by-products
- It forms part of Soil Organic Matter (SOM) — which typically contains ~58% carbon.
- SOC is a key indicator of soil health and agricultural sustainability.
- The ICAR study found that colder, high-altitude regions (like Himalayan areas) retain more soil organic carbon (SOC) than hotter plains, as low temperatures slow down decomposition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Imbalanced fertiliser use, particularly excess urea and phosphorus with inadequate potash and organic manure, reduces SOC by degrading soil biology and organic matter content. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- SOC is essential for soil structure, water retention, nutrient cycling, and overall soil fertility, making it key to sustainable agriculture. Hence statement 3 is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxide into environment 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment Which of the above given statements are the correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 |
6. INS Sahyadri belongs to which class of Indian Navy warships?
(a) Kolkata-class
(b) Shivalik-class
(c) Nilgiri-class
(d) Visakhapatnam-class
Answer: (b) Shivalik-class
Explanation:
In NEWS: Navy deploys INS Sahyadri for Malabar exercise
INS Sahyadri:
- INS Sahyadri is a stealth guided-missile frigate of the Indian Navy.
- It belongs to the Shivalik-class (Project 17). Hence option (b) is correct.
- The ship was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd, Mumbai.
- It was commissioned on 21 July 2012.
- The ship operates under the Eastern Naval Command, Visakhapatnam.
Specifications:
- Full-load displacement is around 6,200 tonnes.
- Length is approximately 142.5 m and beam 16.9 m.
- It uses CODOG propulsion (2 diesel + 2 gas turbines) and can reach 32 knots.
- INS Sahyadri has stealth features: reduced radar, infrared, and acoustic signatures.
- It is armed with BrahMos anti-ship/land-attack missiles and Barak-1 surface-to-air missiles.
Roles & Capabilities
- Roles include anti-air, anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, long-range deployment, and escort missions.
- INS Sahyadri participates in multilateral naval exercises like JAIMEX, Malabar, and Indo-French maritime drills.
- It demonstrates India’s capability in indigenous warship design and “Make in India” defence initiatives.
- Strategically, it enhances India’s blue-water navy capabilities and presence in the Indo-Pacific and Indian Ocean Region.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (a) Amphibious warfare ship (b) Nuclear-powered submarine (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier |
7. Consider the following:
1. 100% Depth of Discharge
2. Non-flammable Electrolyte
3. Rapid reaction in milliseconds
4. No toxic heavy metals or rare elements
5. Operation across wide temperature ranges
How many of the above are the advantages of Vanadium Redox Flow Batteries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c)Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: (d) All the five
Explanation:
In NEWS: Hon’ble Minister of Power, Housing & Urban Affairs, Shri Manohar Lal inaugurates India’s First MWh-Scale Vanadium Flow Battery at NTPC NETRA
Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB):
- A Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB) is a type of rechargeable flow battery that stores energy in liquid electrolytes containing vanadium ions in different oxidation states.
- It’s used for large-scale energy storage, especially for renewable energy (solar, wind) integration and grid stability.
Applications of Vanadium Redox Flow Battery (VRFB):
- Grid-Scale Energy Storage
- Renewable Energy Integration (Solar and Wind)
- Peak Shaving and Load Leveling
- Backup Power Supply
- Microgrids and Remote Area Power Systems
- Frequency Regulation and Voltage Support
- Industrial and Commercial Energy Management
- Utility-Scale Energy Storage Projects
- Data Centers and Critical Infrastructure Support
- Off-Grid and Islanded Power Systems
Key Advantages of VRFBs
1. Long Lifespan: Can last 20–25 years or >15,000–20,000 charge–discharge cycles. Electrolyte and cell components do not degrade easily, unlike lithium-ion cells.
2. 100% Depth of Discharge: VRFBs can be fully discharged (0% state of charge) without damaging the battery or reducing its lifespan. This makes all stored energy usable.
3. High Safety: Electrolyte is non-flammable and operates at ambient temperature and pressure. No risk of thermal runaway, explosion, or fire (unlike lithium-ion).
4. Scalable and Flexible Design: Energy (MWh) depends on tank size, and power (MW) depends on stack size — they can be sized independently. This makes it ideal for large-scale (grid) and long-duration energy storage.
5. Long-Duration Storage Capability: Excellent for storing energy for 4 to 10+ hours, supporting renewable integration and grid stability.
6. Low Maintenance and Easy Refurbishment: Most parts (pumps, tanks, membranes) are easy to replace or recycle. Electrolyte doesn’t degrade, it can be reused indefinitely.
7. Environmentally Friendly: Uses vanadium, which can be recycled from industrial waste or reused from the electrolyte after battery life ends. No toxic heavy metals or rare elements like cobalt or nickel.
8. Stable Performance: Power output doesn’t degrade over time with consistent voltage and capacity even after many cycles. Can operate across wide temperature ranges.
9. Rapid Response Time: Reacts in milliseconds, making it suitable for frequency regulation and voltage support on electrical grids.
10. Low Levelized Cost Over Lifetime: While initial cost is higher, the long life and low operating cost make the total cost per kWh (over 20+ years) very competitive for stationary storage.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2188809
8. Which of the following rivers is a tributary of the Brahmaputra?
1. Subansiri
2. Lohit
3. Rangpo
4. Siang
5. Teesta
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Brahmaputra, Teesta rivers eroding land faster than everin Bangladesh
Brahmaputra River
- Originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet (China), where it is called Yarlung Tsangpo.
- Flows through Tibet, India and Bangladesh.
- Length in India: ~ 916 km.
- Major Indian states it flows through: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam.
- Major tributaries in India: Subansiri, Lohit, Siang, Dibang, Dhansiri.
- Teesta is an independent river, joins Brahmaputra in Bangladesh, but is not considered a tributary in India.
- Rangpo is a tributary of Teesta, not Brahmaputra. Hence option (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
- Joins Ganga (Padma) in Bangladesh and forms Brahmaputra-Jamuna delta.
- Known for annual flooding in Assam plains.
- Important hydropower projects: Siang HEP, Subansiri Lower HEP (ongoing)
- Navigation: Supports inland water transport and fishing communities.
- Ecosystem: Biodiversity hotspot – home to Gangetic dolphin and rich wetland fauna.
- International significance: India-China-Bangladesh transboundary river.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
9. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Aditya-L1 spacecraft is positioned at Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) to observe solar activity continuously.
Statement II: L1 allows a satellite to remain in a stable position relative to the Earth and Sun with minimal fuel consumption.
Statement III: L1 provides a continuous, unobstructed view of the Sun without Earth eclipses.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and Statement III is correct and that explain statement t I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Aditya-L1 gets a close look at eruptions from the sun
Aditya-L1 – Mission Overview
- Aditya-L1 is India’s first dedicated solar mission by ISRO.
- Purpose: To study the Sun, including its corona, solar emissions, and space weather effects.
- Type: Sun-observing satellite at Lagrangian point 1 (L1).
Scientific Objectives
- Study solar corona and chromosphere.
- Measure solar irradiance and magnetic field variations.
- Investigate space weather phenomena affecting Earth.
- Study coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and solar winds.
- Provide early warning for geomagnetic storms impacting Earth’s environment, satellites, and power grids.
Instruments on Board
- VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph) – studies solar corona.
- SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) – UV imaging of Sun.
- ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment) – measures solar wind particles.
- PAPA (Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya) – plasma and particle detection.
- SIXS (Solar X-ray Monitor) – measures X-ray emissions.
- MAG (Magnetometer) – measures magnetic fields near L1.
Strategic & Scientific Significance
- First ISRO mission to Lagrangian point L1 – first in India for Sun observation.
- Helps improve understanding of Sun-Earth interactions.
- Supports space weather forecasting – important for satellite safety, aviation, and power grids
- Contributes to global solar science alongside NASA, ESA, and other space agencies.
- Demonstrates India’s growing capabilities in interplanetary and deep-space missions.
Hence Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA 3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
10. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Answer: (b) Indian wild ass
Explanation:
- The Indian wild ass (Equus hemionus khur) is found mainly in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, which is a sandy and saline area.
- This region provides a unique habitat — flat, arid, saline desert plains with sparse vegetation.
- The wild ass has no natural predators in this region.
- However, its existence is threatened due to:
- Habitat destruction from salt panning,
- Encroachment, and Developmental activities in the Rann of Kutch.
Hence option (b) is correct.