1. Consider the following countries:
1. Singapore
2. Thailand
3. India
4. Brunei
5. Cambodia
How many of the above are the ASEAN member nations?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (c) Only four
Explanation:
In NEWS: India-ASEAN ties making steady progress: PM
ASEAN:
- ASEAN stands for the Association of Southeast Asian Nations established on August 8, 1967.
- It is a regional organization established to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability among its members.
- Founding Members: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand
- Current Members (10 total): Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR (Laos), Malaysia, Myanmar, The Philippines, Singapore, Thailand andVietnam. Hence option (c) is correct.
- ASEAN has dialogue partnerships with countries like China, Japan, South Korea, the U.S., the EU, Australia, and India, forming broader frameworks such as the ASEAN Plus Three (APT) and the East Asia Summit (EAS).
Main Objectives:
- To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development.
- To promote regional peace and stability through respect for justice and rule of law.
- To collaborate in education, technology, trade, and sustainable development.
- To maintain neutrality and cooperation among major world powers.
Key Institutions:
- ASEAN Summit: The highest decision-making body, attended by heads of state or government.
- ASEAN Secretariat: Based in Jakarta, Indonesia, it coordinates and monitors implementation of ASEAN agreements.
- ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA): Promotes free trade among member countries.
22nd ASEAN–India Summit:
- The Summit was held on 26 October 2025 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
- It was held in conjunction with the 47th ASEAN Summit and related meetings, under Malaysia’s chairmanship of ASEAN in 2025.
- The theme of Malaysia’s ASEAN Chair for 2025 is “Inclusivity and Sustainability”. This theme was referenced in the Summit’s discussions.
- India and ASEAN agreed to adopt an Action Plan for 2026–2030 under their Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, with priority areas including digital economy, clean energy, innovation, sustainable infrastructure, healthcare, and narrowing development gaps.
- India announced the year 2026 will be designated as the “Year of ASEAN–India Maritime Cooperation”. The focus is on maritime security, blue economy, marine science, transport connectivity and joint maritime initiatives.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 |
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-47th-asean-summit-virtual-address/article70204727.ece
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve is India’s first officially recognized dark sky reserve, located in the remote Himalayan region of Ladakh.
Statement-II:
The Hanle region has minimal light pollution, low atmospheric moisture, and clear skies for over 260 nights per year.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Hanle protects its dark skies and builds a future on stargazing
The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve:
- The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve is India’s first officially recognized dark sky reserve, located in the remote Himalayan region of Ladakh (Union Territory of India).
- It’s one of the best places in the world for stargazing, astronomical research, and astrophotography due to its exceptionally clear and unpolluted night skies.
- The Hanle region has minimal light pollution, low atmospheric moisture, and clear skies for over 260 nights per year. Hence both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- It hosts the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), one of the world’s highest observatories.
- The reserve is designed to preserve the natural night sky and promote astro-tourism while protecting local wildlife and culture.
- The IAO, Hanle, houses major telescopes:
- Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT) — a 2-meter optical-infrared telescope.
- GROWTH-India Telescope — for time-domain astronomy (observing transient events like supernovae).
- Upcoming facilities like the National Large Optical Telescope (NLOT) are planned nearby.
- Managed by:
- Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)
- Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC)
- Department of Science & Technology (DST), Government of India
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following space missions: 1. Axiom-4 2. SpaDeX 3. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None |
3. Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 report and India’s natural World Heritage sites:
1. The Western Ghats, Sundarbans, and Manas National Park have been categorised as sites of “significant concern” in the latest IUCN report.
2. The four primary threats to natural World Heritage sites in South Asia are climate change, tourism, invasive alien species, and roads/railways.
3. Protected areas in South Asia now show an increasing positive conservation outlook compared to previous assessments.
4. Exotic species such as eucalyptus and acacia are native to the Western Ghats and contribute positively to biodiversity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
In NEWS: Why has IUCN red-flagged the Western Ghats?
Explanation:
- The IUCN’s World Heritage Outlook 4 report released earlier this month attributes four threats to the loss of habitats and species in South Asia: climate change, tourism activities, invasive alien species, and roads.
- The report categorises the natural sites as “good”, “good with some concerns”, “significant concern”, and “critical”.
- The expansive Western Ghats and two national parks in India – Assam’s Manas national park and West Bengal’s Sundarbans national park have been categorised as being of “significant concern” in the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) list of natural World Heritage sites across Asia.
1. The Western Ghats, Sundarbans National Park, and Manas National Park have all been officially categorized as sites of “significant concern” in the latest IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 report, meaning Statement 1 is correct. This designation reflects the serious pressures these biodiversity hotspots are currently facing.
2. The report specifically identifies climate change, tourism, invasive alien species, and roads/railways as the four dominant threats impacting the conservation status of natural World Heritage sites across South Asia, making Statement 2 correct.
3. Contrary to Statement 3, the overall trend revealed by the report shows a decline in the global conservation health of natural sites, with a decreasing percentage of sites having a positive conservation outlook compared to previous assessments, which means Statement 3 is incorrect.
4. Statement 4 is incorrect because species like eucalyptus and acacia are exotic (non-native) trees, introduced to the Western Ghats for commercial plantations, and they are now classified as Invasive Alien Species that severely threaten native flora, such as the shola grasslands, and thus do not contribute positively to biodiversity
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Which of the following is a World Heritage Site located in India? (a) Mount Fuji (b) Chichen Itza (c) Red Fort (d) Eiffel Tower |
4. Consider the following statements regarding Co-Lending in India:
1. In co-lending, both banks and NBFCs jointly originate and disburse the loan to the borrower.
2. The NBFC in co-lending bears the majority of the risk, while the bank’s share is usually less.
3. Co-lending is primarily aimed at improving credit flow to priority sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Govt.-owned NBFCs can unleash credit via co-lending
1. INTRODUCTION
Co-lending refers to a partnership between banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) where both jointly provide loans to borrowers, especially in the priority sectors such as agriculture, MSMEs, and affordable housing. Hence statement 1 is correct.
This initiative is promoted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enhance credit flow to underserved sectors and improve financial inclusion.
2. How Co-Lending Works
- The NBFC identifies and originates the loan, performs credit appraisal, and manages customer interaction.
- The bank provides a portion of the funding.
- Loans are jointly sanctioned, and both entities share the risk in a pre-agreed ratio.
- Typically, banks hold a majority share of the loan, ensuring compliance with priority sector lending targets.
- Example: If a ₹10 lakh loan is co-lent in an 80:20 ratio, the bank contributes ₹8 lakh, and the NBFC ₹2 lakh
3. Key Features
| Feature | Description |
| Objective | Increase credit to priority sectors and underserved borrowers |
| Risk Sharing | Pre-agreed ratio between bank and NBFC |
| Loan Origination | NBFCs originate; banks provide funding |
| Customer Interaction | NBFC handles disbursal, monitoring, and recovery |
| Regulation | RBI issued guidelines for co-lending in 2018 |
4. Benefits
1. For Banks:
- Expands outreach without increasing operational burden.
- Helps achieve priority sector lending targets. Hence statement 3 is correct.
2. For NBFCs:
- Access to low-cost funds from banks.
- Reduces liquidity risk. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
3. For Borrowers:
- Easier access to credit in rural or underserved areas.
- Better loan terms due to combined strengths of banks and NBFCs.
5. RBI Guidelines
- Banks and NBFCs must enter formal agreements specifying roles, responsibilities, and risk-sharing.
- Maximum exposure for banks is usually capped at 80% of the loan.
- Both institutions jointly perform due diligence and comply with all regulatory norms.
Reference: RBI Master Circular on Co-Lending by Banks and NBFCs, 2018
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and Small Finance Banks (SFBs), consider the following statements: (2024) 1. NBFCs do not offer credit, but SFBs offer credit. 2. NBFCs do not accept demand deposits, but SFBs accept demand deposits. 3. Transaction services are not offered by NBFCs, whereas transaction services are offered by SFBs. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
5. With reference to the “Classical Languages of India”, consider the following statements:
- To qualify as a Classical Language, it must possess recorded history of at least 1,000 years and a continuous literary tradition.
- Classical Languages may show discontinuity from their modern forms.
- The criteria for Classical Language recognition are laid down by the Ministry of Education.
- Classical Language status entails creation of dedicated Centres of Excellence under the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Preserving India’s Linguistic Heritage
Classical Languages in India:
- The Government of India conferred the ‘Classical Language’ status to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali languages on October 03, 2024
- As of October 2025,a total of 11 Indian languages hold the status of Classical Language.
- Six Indian languages – Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, and Odia were earlier accorded the status of classical languages between 2004 to 2024.
The criteria for a language to be classified as a Classical Language include the following:
- High antiquity of its early texts or recorded history, spanning a period of 1,500-2,000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- A body of ancient literature or texts that is considered heritage by generations of speakers.
- Knowledge texts, especially prose texts, in addition to poetry, epigraphical and inscriptional evidence.
- The Classical Language and its literature may be distinct from its current form or show discontinuity with later forms derived from the original. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The status of a classical language entails the establishment of dedicated Centres of Excellence for its study and promotion. These centers are often set up under the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) to support research, documentation, and the digitization of manuscripts. Hence statement 4 is correct.
The criteria for Classical Language recognition are laid down by the Ministry of Culture, in consultation with linguistic and historical experts, and not the Ministry of Education. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Consider the following languages: (2016) 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada 3. Telugu Which of the above has/have been declared as a ‘Classical Language’ by the Government of India? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2182753
6. With reference to the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) 2025, consider the following statements:
1. Vigyan Ratna award can be conferred posthumously.
2. Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award recognizes scientists up to 45 years of age who have made exceptional contributions in any field of science and technology.
3. Vigyan Team award can be given to any number of scientists working together upto two researchers only.
4. Awards are conferred across 12 domains including Agriculture, Medicine, and Space Science.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Government of India Announces Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025 to Honour Excellence in Science, Technology, and Innovation
- Vigyan Ratna can be conferred posthumously: For the 2025 awards, Professor Jayant Vishnu Narlikar was posthumously selected for the Vigyan Ratna Puraskar. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award has an age limit of 45: This award recognizes and encourages young scientists up to the age of 45 who have made exceptional contributions in any field of science and technology. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Awards are conferred across 12 domains: The awards are given across 13 domains, including Agriculture, Medicine, and Space Science. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Vigyan Team award is for teams of three or more: The Vigyan Team award is given to a team of three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’? (2025) I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) II and IV only (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I and III only |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2182615
7. Consider the following statements regarding RTGS and NEFT in India:
1. RTGS and NEFT are India’s main electronic interbank fund transfer systems, regulated by SEBI.
2. RTGS works on real-time and gross settlement, whereas NEFT transfers are batch-processed settlement at intervals.
3. RTGS has no upper limit for transfer, whereas NEFT transactions have a maximum limit of transaction.
4. Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24×7 for all types of customers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 4 only
In NEWS: UPI leads in payments volume, RTGS in value; debit card transactions decline: RBI report
Explanation:
- RTGS and NEFT are India’s main electronic interbank fund transfer systems, regulated by RBI. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- They are crucial for digital payments, financial inclusion, and an efficient payment ecosystem.
1. RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement):
- Transfers are real-time and gross (each transaction individually settled).
- High-value transfers: Minimum ₹2 lakh, no upper limit.
- Availability: 24×7 (since Dec 2020).
- Use: Large, urgent transactions (e.g., corporate payments, property deals).
2. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer):
- Transfers are batch-processed, settled at intervals (real-time now since Dec 2019).
- No minimum or maximum limit. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Availability: 24×7.
- Use: Everyday retail payments (e.g., salaries, bills, online shopping).
3. RTGS vs NEFT Comparison:
| Feature | RTGS | NEFT |
| Settlement | Real-time, gross | Batch-wise |
| Minimum Transfer | ₹2 lakh | No minimum |
| Maximum Transfer | No upper limit | No maximum |
| Speed | Immediate | Few minutes to hours |
| Usage | Large & urgent | Retail & small-value |
| Availability | 24×7 | 24×7 |
4. Importance in Indian Economy:
- Promotes digital payments, reduces cash dependency.
- Supports financial inclusion in remote areas.
- Enables fast, secure fund transfer for government schemes (PM-KISAN, DBT, GST refunds).
- Reduces settlement risk and improves monetary policy transmission.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: (2025) I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) III only |
8. Which of the following is/are powers of the Lokpal under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
1. Lokpal can inquire into and investigate allegations of corruption against public servants, including directing and supervising the CBI in such cases.
2. It can grant sanction for prosecution and file cases before Special Courts under the Prevention of Corruption Act.
3. Lokpal submits annual reports to the President, which are laid before Parliament.
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, and 3
In NEWS: Sharp reduction in number of complaints received by Lokpal
Explanation:
1. Introduction
- Lokpal: Anti-corruption authority at the Central Government level.
- Lokayukta: Anti-corruption authority at the State Government level.
- Established under: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Central Act).
Objective: Investigate and prosecute public servants involved in corruption, reduce maladministration, and strengthen accountability in governance.
2. Composition
Lokpal (Central)
- Chairperson + up to 8 members.
- At least 50% judicial members.
Includes members for PM, Ministers, MPs, and Group A officers.
- Appointment Committee: PM, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition, CJI, and an eminent jurist.
Lokayukta (State)
- Each state enacts its own Lokayukta Act.
- Chairperson usually a retired High Court or Supreme Court judge.
Members may include administrative and judicial officials.
- Appointed by Governor in consultation with Chief Minister and opposition leaders.
3. Jurisdiction
| Authority | Who it can investigate |
| Lokpal | PM (with certain limitations), Union Ministers, MPs, Group A officers of Central Government |
| Lokayukta | Chief Minister, State Ministers, state government officials |
Exclusions: Judiciary (except in very specific cases, e.g., under separate procedures).
4. Powers and Functions
Inquiry and Investigation:
Lokpal can inquire into and investigate allegations of corruption against public servants, including directing and supervising the CBI in such cases.
Prosecution:
It can grant sanction for prosecution and file cases before Special Courts under the Prevention of Corruption Act.
Civil Court Powers:
The Lokpal has powers of a civil court — to summon witnesses, examine evidence, and requisition public records.
Attachment and Confiscation:
It can recommend attachment and confiscation of assets acquired through corrupt means.
Disciplinary Action:
Lokpal may recommend suspension, transfer, or other disciplinary measures against accused officials.
Oversight of CBI:
It exercises supervision and control over the CBI in matters referred to it and can monitor investigation progress.
Frivolous Complaints:
Lokpal can dismiss false or vexatious complaints and initiate action against malicious complainants.
Rule-Making Power:
It can frame rules and regulations for its functioning, subject to government approval.
Reporting:
Lokpal submits annual reports to the President, which are laid before Parliament.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Under which act were the Lokpal and Lokayuktas established? (2016) (a) Prevention of Corruption Act (b) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (c) Right to Information Act (d) Public Grievances Redressal Act |
9. Which of the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is/are correct?
1. He led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928 and earned the title “Sardar.”
2. He was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of independent India.
3. He played a key role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
4. The Statue of Unity in Gujarat commemorates his contributions.
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister will lead parade on 150th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Statement 1:
He led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928 and earned the title “Sardar.”
- The Bardoli Satyagraha was a peasant movement in Gujarat against excessive taxation by the British government.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the leader of this movement. - His success in organizing the peasants and forcing the British to roll back taxes earned him the title “Sardar” (leader/chief).
Statement 2:
He was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of independent India
- After independence in 1947, Jawaharlal Nehru became Prime Minister, and Sardar Patel became the first Deputy PM and Home Minister.
- He was responsible for administrative consolidation and the integration of princely states.
Statement 3:
He played a key role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
- At the time of independence, India had over 560 princely states that were technically independent.
- Patel, with V.P. Menon, negotiated with the rulers, using a combination of diplomacy and firmness to ensure accession to India.
- Famous cases: Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir (instruments of accession).
- His efforts prevented the fragmentation of India and earned him the title “Iron Man of India.”
Statement 4:
The Statue of Unity in Gujarat commemorates his contributions.
- The Statue of Unity is a 182-meter tall statue of Sardar Patel, located at Kevadia, Gujarat.
- Inaugurated in 2018, it is the world’s tallest statue.
- Symbolizes national unity and his contributions to integrating the princely states.
Bardoli Satyagraha → “Sardar” → 1928
Deputy PM + Home Minister → first after independence
Integration of princely states → Iron Man of India
Statue of Unity → Gujarat, 2018, world’s tallest statue
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. The Statue of Unity, recently seen in news , commemorates which personality? (2020) (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (d) Bhagat Singh |
10. Match the species with their natural habitat / region:
| Species | Region |
| 1. Manipur Bush Quail | A. Western Ghats |
| 2. Long-snouted Vine Snake | B. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve |
| 3. Gooty Tarantula | C. Andhra Pradesh forest regions |
| 4. Tapanuli Orangutan | D. Sumatra, Indonesia |
Codes:
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(b) 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
(d) 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
Answer: (b) 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Explanation:
1. Manipur Bush Quail
- Scientific name: Perdicula manipurensis
- Rediscovered after many decades, it was thought extinct since 1932.
- Natural habitat: Grasslands and scrublands in Manipur, and some parts of Assam.
- Correct match: B. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve / NE India (Dudhwa is in Uttar Pradesh but often considered in context of rediscovery regions; the important point is it’s Northeastern India, not Western Ghats).
2. Long-snouted Vine Snake
- Scientific name: Ahaetulla longirostris
- Arboreal snake, very rare and recently rediscovered in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh.
- Correct match: B. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
3. Gooty Tarantula
- Scientific name: Poecilotheria metallica
- Endemic to a tiny forested region in Gooty, Andhra Pradesh.
- Correct match: C. Andhra Pradesh forest regions
4. Tapanuli Orangutan
- Scientific name: Pongo tapanuliensis
- Discovered in 2017 in Batang Toru forest, Sumatra, Indonesia.
Correct match: D. Sumatra, Indonesia