1. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Quantum tunnelling’, recently seen in NEWS?
(a) A phenomenon where two or more particles become linked, sharing the same fate regardless of the distance separating them. Measuring the state of one entangled particle instantly determines the state of the others.
(b) The ability of a quantum system to exist in multiple states at the same time. For example, a qubit can be in a superposition of 0 and 1 until measured.
(c) A quantum mechanical phenomenon where a particle can pass through a potential energy barrier that would be impenetrable in classical mechanics.
(d) A phenomenon where the wave-like properties of quantum particles, like electrons or photons, cause their probability amplitudes to combine, either reinforcing or canceling each other out.
Answer: (c) A quantum mechanical phenomenon where a particle can pass through a potential energy barrier that would be impenetrable in classical mechanics.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Trio win Physics Nobel 2025 for building device showing ‘quantum tunnelling’
Quantum Tunnelling:
- Quantum tunnelling is a phenomenon where particles penetrate through an energy barrier that they classically cannot overcome, due to their wave-like nature in quantum mechanics. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Origin: It arises from the probabilistic interpretation of the Schrödinger equation, which allows a non-zero probability of finding a particle beyond a potential barrier.
Classical vs Quantum:
- In classical physics, a particle with energy less than the barrier height cannot cross it.
- In quantum physics, the wavefunction associated with the particle decays inside the barrier but continues beyond it, allowing “tunnelling.”
Macroscopic Quantum Tunnelling (2025 Nobel Context):
- Demonstrated that quantum effects can manifest in macroscopic systems such as superconducting circuits.
- The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret, and John M. Martinis for experiments showing macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in Josephson junctions.
- This discovery bridges the gap between quantum theory and real-world applications like quantum computers and quantum sensors.
Applications:
- Nuclear Fusion: Enables protons in the Sun’s core to overcome repulsive forces and fuse.
- Alpha Decay: Explains how alpha particles escape atomic nuclei.
- Semiconductor Devices: Used in tunnel diodes and transistors.
- Scanning Tunnelling Microscope (STM): Uses tunnelling current to image surfaces at the atomic level.
- Quantum Computing: Basis for superconducting qubits and Josephson junctions.
Significance:
- Provides direct evidence for the universality of quantum laws at all scales.
- Forms the foundation for next-generation quantum technologies (computing, cryptography, communication).
Quantum related terms:
Qubit: The basic unit of information in quantum computing, analogous to a bit in classical computing. Unlike a bit, a qubit can exist in a superposition of both 0 and 1 simultaneously.
Quantum Entanglement: A phenomenon where two or more particles become linked, sharing the same fate regardless of the distance separating them. Measuring the state of one entangled particle instantly determines the state of the others.
Quantum Superposition: The ability of a quantum system to exist in multiple states at the same time. For example, a qubit can be in a superposition of 0 and 1 until measured.
Quantum interference is a phenomenon where the wave-like properties of quantum particles, like electrons or photons, cause their probability amplitudes to combine, either reinforcing or canceling each other out.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (a) Cloud Services (b) Quantum Computing (c) Visible Light Communication Technologies (d) Wireless Communication Technologies |
2. Consider the following statements regarding cotton cultivation in India:
1. The World Cotton Day which is observed annually on 7th October was officially recognised through a resolution of the World Trade Organization.
2. Maharashtra has the largest area under cotton cultivation in India.
3. Gujarat has the highest cotton productivity in India.
4. Cotton is highly tolerant to both drought and waterlogging.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: Ministry of Textiles celebrates ‘World Cotton Day’ 2025
World Cotton Day 2025:
- Observed on: 7th October every year.
- Established by: United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) Resolution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- First celebrated: 2019, initiated by the Cotton-4 countries (Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad, Mali) with support from the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- 2025 Theme: “The Fabric of Our Lives”.
- Organisers (2025): FAO, International Trade Centre (ITC), WTO, UNCTAD, and the Republic of Chad.
Objective:
- To highlight the role of cotton in economic growth, trade, and poverty reduction.
- To promote sustainable and inclusive cotton value chains, especially in developing and least developed countries.
- To raise awareness about challenges faced by cotton producers, especially in Africa and Asia.
Cotton Crop in India:
- Scientific name: Gossypium spp.
- Family: Malvaceae.
- Type: Kharif crop (sown June–September; harvested October–March).
- Climate: Tropical and subtropical; requires 21–30°C, 6–8 months frost-free period, and 50–100 cm rainfall.
- Soil: Best grown in black cotton soil (regur soil) of the Deccan Plateau; also grown in alluvial soils of North India.
- Irrigation: Moderate; sensitive to both drought and waterlogging. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Leading Producers:
- Maharashtra (largest area under cotton cultivation in India). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Gujarat (highest productivity in India). Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan.
India’s Cotton Belt: Divided into 3 zones —
- Northern Zone: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan.
- Central Zone: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh.
- Southern Zone: Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2020) Q. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop? (a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Sugarcane (d) Tea |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2176028
3. Consider the following statements with respect to PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana:
1. It aims to provide free electricity to households by facilitating the installation of rooftop solar panels.
2. Under the scheme, 100% subsidy is provided for solar systems up to 2 kW capacity.
3. The possession of a valid electricity connection is one of the eligibility criterias under the scheme.
4. As of January 2025, the scheme fulfilled its vision to supply solar power to one crore households.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: Over 5 Lakh Loan Applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore Sanctioned by PSBs under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana:
- This initiative aims to provide free electricity to households by facilitating the installation of rooftop solar panels. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The PMSGMBY, the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, is reshaping India’s energy landscape with a bold vision to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.
- As of January 27, 2025, the scheme has already benefitted 8.46 lakh households through rooftop solar installations. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
- Under the “Model Solar Village” component of the scheme, the focus is on establishing one Model Solar Village per district throughout India.
- This initiative aims to promote solar energy adoption and empower village communities to achieve energy self-reliance.
Eligibility:
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Subsidy Details:
- 60% subsidy for solar systems up to 2 kW capacity. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- 40% subsidy for additional capacity between 2 kW and 3 kW.
- Maximum subsidy limit is for 3 kW systems.
Key Benefits:
- Free Electricity for Households: The scheme provides households with free electricity through the installation of subsidized rooftop solar panels, significantly reducing their energy costs.
- Reduced Electricity Costs for the Government: By promoting the widespread use of solar power, the scheme is expected to save the government an estimated ₹75,000 crore annually in electricity costs.
- Increased Use of Renewable Energy: The scheme encourages the adoption of renewable energy sources, contributing to a more sustainable and environmentally friendly energy mix in India.
- Reduced Carbon Emissions: The transition to solar energy under this scheme will help lower carbon emissions, supporting India’s commitment to reducing its carbon footprint.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’: I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2175815
4. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS):
1. It involves capturing carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere for use in industrial applications.
2. Geological formations such as saline aquifers and depleted oil fields can be used for CO₂ storage.
3. CCS can contribute to achieving negative emissions when combined with bioenergy production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Asia’s carbon capture push may jeopardise global climate goals
A report by global science and policy institute Climate Analytics has warned that Asia’s expansive plans for Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) could lead to nearly 25 billion tonnes of additional greenhouse gas emissions by 2050, threatening the Paris Agreement’s 1.5°C climate target and locking the region into costly and uncompetitive fossil fuel pathways.
Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS)
Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is a technology aimed at reducing CO₂ emissions from large point sources (like power plants and industries) by capturing, transporting, and storing it underground so it does not enter the atmosphere.
Note: capturing carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere for use in industrial applications is known as “Direct Air Capture (DAC)”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Key Steps
1. Capture:
- CO₂ is separated from industrial or energy-related processes.
- Methods: Pre-combustion, post-combustion, and oxy-fuel combustion.
2. Transport:
Captured CO₂ is compressed and transported (via pipelines, ships, or tankers) to storage sites.
3. Storage:
- CO₂ is injected deep underground into geological formations such as:
- Depleted oil and gas fields
- Deep saline aquifers
- Unmineable coal seams
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Objectives & Importance
- Climate mitigation: Reduces greenhouse gas emissions to help meet Paris Agreement and net-zero targets.
- Supports decarbonization of hard-to-abate sectors — like cement, steel, and chemical industries.
- Can be combined with bioenergy (BECCS) for negative emissions. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Challenges
- High cost of capture and infrastructure.
- Energy-intensive process (reduces overall efficiency).
- Risk of leakage from storage sites.
- Public opposition due to safety and environmental concerns.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
5. “Global Action Plan for the Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCD GAP)” is an initiative launched by
(a) World Health Organization (WHO)
(b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(c) World Bank Group (WBG)
(d) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
Answer: (a) World Health Organization (WHO)
Explanation:
In NEWS: Only three WHO regions on track to achieve 30% tobacco use reduction target
Global Action Plan for the Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCD GAP):
- Origin: Adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2013 (Resolution WHA66.10) as a response to the growing global burden of NCDs.
- Launched by: World Health Organization (WHO). Hence option (a) is correct.
- Extension to 2030: In 2019, the World Health Assembly extended the plan to 2030 to align with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and to intensify efforts towards achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.4, which aims to reduce premature mortality from NCDs by one-third through prevention and treatment.
- Implementation Roadmap (2023–2030): Developed to accelerate progress on preventing and controlling NCDs, this roadmap outlines strategic directions and actions for countries to implement.
Objectives
- Raise Priority: Enhance the political priority of NCDs in national health agendas.
- Strengthen Governance: Improve national governance mechanisms for NCD prevention and control.
- Promote Healthy Environments: Create environments that support healthy lifestyles and reduce exposure to NCD risk factors.
- Universal Health Coverage (UHC): Ensure access to essential NCD services and medicines as part of UHC.
- Strengthen Health Systems: Enhance health systems to deliver effective NCD prevention, treatment, and care.
- Monitor Progress: Develop robust monitoring and evaluation frameworks to track progress and outcomes.
Nine Global Voluntary Targets (for 2025)
- Tobacco Use: Reduce the prevalence of tobacco use by 30%.
- Physical Activity: Increase physical activity by 10%.
- Salt Intake: Reduce mean population salt intake by 30%.
- Alcohol Consumption: Reduce the harmful use of alcohol by 10%.
- Raised Blood Pressure: Reduce the prevalence of raised blood pressure by 25%.
- Obesity and Diabetes: Halt the rise in obesity and diabetes.
- Drug Therapy and Counseling: Ensure that 50% of eligible people receive drug therapy and counseling to prevent heart attacks and strokes.
- Premature Mortality: Achieve a 25% relative reduction in risk of premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, or chronic respiratory diseases.
- Essential Medicines: Ensure 80% availability of affordable essential medicines and basic technologies for NCDs in both public and private facilities.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (b) The UNEP Secretariat (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (d) The World Meterological Organisation |
6. What is the “Polar Silk Route”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) A proposed railway line connecting China to Europe through the Himalayas.
(b) A maritime trade route across the Arctic Ocean connecting Asia and Europe.
(c) A high-speed fiber-optic cable project linking polar research stations.
(d) An overland pipeline transporting natural gas from Siberia to China via the Arctic.
Answer: (b) A maritime trade route across the Arctic Ocean connecting Asia and Europe.
Explanation:
In NEWS: As China’s ‘Istanbul Bridge’ chugs the Northern Sea Route for the UK, study warns of grim consequences for the Arctic
The Polar Silk Route (PSR):
- The Polar Silk Route (PSR) is a proposed Arctic shipping route linking East Asia and Europe via the Northern Sea Route (NSR) along Russia’s Arctic coast. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It is part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and was formally introduced in China’s 2018 Arctic Policy.
- The PSR offers a shorter maritime path—up to 40% less distance—than traditional routes like the Suez Canal.
Strategic Importance and Geopolitical Implications:
- China sees the PSR as a way to diversify trade routes and reduce dependence on chokepoints like the Suez Canal and Strait of Malacca.
- The route strengthens China’s position as a “near-Arctic state”, increasing its involvement in Arctic affairs.
- The PSR is expected to enhance China–Europe trade by lowering shipping time and fuel costs.
- The PSR may heighten geopolitical competition in the Arctic among China, Russia, the US, and other Arctic nations.
- Russia controls the NSR and requires ships to use icebreaker escorts and follow Polar Code regulations.
- There is growing concern over the lack of international governance for shipping impacts in the Arctic Ocean.
Environmental Concerns:
- The viability of the PSR depends on Arctic sea ice melting, which is a direct result of climate change.
- Increased Arctic shipping could lead to higher emissions of black carbon, which accelerates ice melt when deposited on snow and ice.
- The Arctic region has limited capacity to handle oil spills or maritime accidents, making increased traffic risky.
- Sensitive Arctic ecosystems and Indigenous communities face serious threats from expanded maritime activity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. (b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. (c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole. (d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. |
7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Snow leopards exhibit significantly low levels of genetic variation.
Statement II: Snow leopards have undergone historic inbreeding due to their consistently small populations living in rugged, isolated mountain regions.
Statement III: Limited genetic diversity may reduce Snow leopards’ resilience to climate change, disease, and habitat loss.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Snow leopards have very low genetic diversity, which puts their future at risk, finds Stanford study
Low genetic diversity in snow leopards:
- Snow leopards (Panthera uncia) have very low genetic diversity, meaning their overall genetic variation is limited. Hence statement I is correct.
- The study involved 41 full genome sequences: 35 wild snow leopards + 6 from zoos. Previously only 4 individuals had full genome data.
- The cause is not a recent bottleneck (as in many big cats) but a long‐term, persistently small population size living in harsh mountainous habitat. Because of this, snow leopards have had historic inbreeding over long periods. Hence statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
- Adaptive potential is constrained: With low genetic diversity, ability to adapt to new threats (e.g. diseases, changing prey, warming climate) is reduced.
- Greater vulnerability to stochastic events: A disease outbreak or sudden environmental disturbance could have outsized effects since there’s less genetic “backup.” Hence statement III is correct but does not explain Statement I. Statement III is a consequence and not a cause for Statement I.
Snow Leopard:
- The snow leopard (Panthera uncia) is a large carnivorous cat native to the high mountain ranges of Central and South Asia.
- Snow leopards inhabit high-altitude mountains (3,000–5,500 m), including the Himalayas, Karakoram, Pamirs, and Tien Shan ranges.
- Countries where they are found include: India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Mongolia, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Kazakhstan, and others.
- They prefer rocky terrain, cliff edges, and alpine meadows, which provide cover and strategic vantage points for hunting.
- They are Carnivorous apex predators: Main prey includes blue sheep (bharal), ibex, marmots, pikas, and domestic livestock.
- Solitary and mostly nocturnal or crepuscular (active at dawn and dusk).
- Uses stealth and surprise rather than speed to hunt.
- Has a long tail for balance on steep slopes and as insulation when wrapped around the body in cold.
- IUCN Status: Vulnerable
- Protected under CITES Appendix I (ban on international trade).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. Consider the following: 1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
8. There is a concern over the increase in harmful impact of microplastics. What could be the harmful consequences of this phenomenon?
1. Bioaccumulation
2. Damage OF Coral reefS
3. Soil degradation
4. Cellular damage in humans
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Microplastics impact coral reproduction at multiple stages: Report
- Chemicals that leach out from microplastics significantly reduce survival and settlement of coral planula larvae.
- The effect depends on species, type of polymer, concentration, and exposure time.
- Corals were exposed to microplastic leachate from four plastic types – nylon, polypropylene (PP), high-density polyethylene (HDPE) or low-density polyethylene (LDPE)
Microplastics:
Microplastics are plastic particles smaller than 5 mm in size.
They can be:
- Primary microplastics – made small intentionally (e.g., microbeads).
- Secondary microplastics – result from breakdown of larger plastic debris.
Primary Microplastics:
Personal care products – Microbeads in face washes, toothpaste, scrubs
Industrial abrasives – Used in sandblasting, textile processing
Plastic pellets (nurdles) – Used as raw material in plastic manufacturing
Secondary Microplastics:
Plastic waste breakdown – Bottles, bags, wrappers degraded by UV, waves
Synthetic clothing fibers – Polyester, nylon shed in laundry water
Tire wear particles – Rubber from car tires worn onto roads, washed into waterways
Paints & coatings – Marine paints, road markings
Fishing gear degradation – Nets, lines, floats breaking down in oceans
Harms of Microplastics:
Environmental Impacts
- Marine pollution
- Harm to marine life
- Bioaccumulation
- Coral reef damage
- Soil degradation
Human Health Concerns
- Food & water – Found in seafood, salt, bottled water, fruits & vegetables
- Inhalation – Airborne microplastic fibers from synthetic fabrics, dust
- Toxic chemicals – Plastics contain additives (BPA, phthalates, flame retardants) that may disrupt hormones
- Cellular damage – Studies show microplastics can cause inflammation and stress in cells
- Crossing barriers – Detected in human blood, lungs, placenta – potential unknown long-term effects
Hence option (d) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment? (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems. (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children. (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields. (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants. |
9. Which of the following factors generally lead to depreciation of the Indian rupee?
1. Increase in crude oil prices
2. Fall in U.S. interest rates
3. Rise in capital inflows
4. Increase in current account deficit
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer:
Explanation:
In NEWS: Rupee falls 3 paise to close at 88.80 against U.S. dollar
- The Indian rupee depreciated by 3 paise, closing at ₹88.80 per U.S. dollar.
- The fall was attributed to a stronger U.S. dollar index, foreign fund outflows, and rising crude oil prices.
Rupee Depreciation
- Rupee depreciation means a fall in the value of the Indian rupee against a foreign currency (usually the U.S. dollar) in a floating exchange rate system.
For example:
- If ₹1 = $0.012 → becomes ₹1 = $0.011 → the rupee has depreciated (you now need more rupees to buy one dollar).
Types of Exchange Rate Movements
| Term | Meaning |
| Depreciation | Fall in value of domestic currency due to market forces (flexible exchange rate). |
| Devaluation | Fall in value of domestic currency by government decision (fixed exchange rate). |
| Appreciation | Rise in value of domestic currency due to market forces. |
| Revaluation | Rise in value of domestic currency by official decision. |
Major Causes of Rupee Depreciation
1. High Crude Oil Prices:
India imports ~85% of its crude needs → increases demand for dollars. Hence 1 is correct.
2. Current Account Deficit (CAD):
Higher imports than exports lead to more dollar outflow. Hence 4 is correct.
3. Foreign Portfolio Outflows:
When FPIs withdraw investments, they convert rupees to dollars, reducing rupee demand. Hence 3 is incorrect.
4. Strong U.S. Dollar:
The Federal Reserve’s high interest rates attract capital to the U.S. Hence 2 is incorrect.
5. Inflation Differential:
Higher inflation in India erodes the rupee’s purchasing power.
6. Geopolitical & Global Uncertainty:
Wars, conflicts, or global recession increase demand for the dollar as a “safe haven.”
Impact of Rupee Depreciation
Negative Impacts
- Costlier Imports: Oil, gold, fertilizers, and electronics become expensive.
- Inflationary Pressure: Imported inflation due to higher input costs.
- Widening CAD: More dollars spent on imports.
- Debt Servicing Pressure: External borrowings become costlier in rupee terms.
Positive Impacts
- Boosts Exports: Indian goods become cheaper abroad.
- Tourism & Remittances: Foreign remittances gain more rupee value.
RBI’s Role in Managing Depreciation
- Intervention: Sells dollars from forex reserves to stabilize the rupee.
- Monetary Policy Tools: Adjusts interest rates and liquidity conditions.
- Market Confidence: Issues policy statements to prevent panic.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
10. Consider the following animals:
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
- Hedgehogs roll into a tight ball when threatened, using their spines to protect vulnerable parts.
- Marmots do not roll up. They rely on burrowing, alarm calls, and running to evade predators.
- Pangolins roll into a ball when threatened, using their hard keratin scales as armor.
Hence option (d) is correct.