1. With respect to the dairy sector in India, Consider the following statements:
I. India is the world’s largest milk producer, contributing nearly a quarter of the world’s supply.
II. More than 50% of dairy farmers in India are women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both 1 and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both 1 and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: India’s Dairy Sector – “Anchoring Nutrition and Income Security”
India’s Dairy Sector
- India is the world’s largest milk producer, contributing ~25% of global supply. Hence statement I is correct.
- Dairy contributes 5% to India’s GDP and supports 8 crore farmers, mostly smallholders.
Sector Growth (2014–2024)
- Milk production increased by 63.56% to 239.3 million tonnes.
- Per capita milk availability rose by 48% to 471 grams/day.
- Bovine productivity grew by 27.39%, highest globally.
Women in Dairy
- 70% of dairy workforce are women; 35% participate in cooperatives. Hence statement II is correct.
- 48,000+ women-led dairy cooperatives operate nationwide.
Scientific & Technological Advances
- 565.55 lakh artificial inseminations performed in 2024–25.
- IVF labs (22) and sex-sorted semen (10.32 million doses) support breed improvement.
- 38,736 MAITRIs trained to deliver doorstep breeding and vet services.
Genetic & Breed Improvement
- Rashtriya Gokul Mission aims to improve indigenous breeds and productivity.
- 3,747 progeny-tested bulls and 132 breed farms established.
Sustainability Push
- Ethno Veterinary Medicine (EVM) integrates Ayurveda with animal healthcare.
- Focus on natural farming, organic manure, and biogas for circular economy.
White Revolution 2.0 (2024–2029)
- Goal: Raise milk procurement to 1007 lakh kg/day by 2029.
- Plan: Set up 75,000 new dairy cooperatives and strengthen 46,422 existing ones.
- Launch of 3 Multi-State Cooperatives for feed, sustainability, and animal by-product management.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172546
2. Which of the following would include Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in India?
1. Setting up subsidiaries and joint ventures
2. American Depository Receipts
3. Investment in physical assets
4. Purchase of shares and stocks
5. Investment in government securities
6. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: FPIs withdraw from Indian equities for third straight month
Foreign portfolio investment (FPI):
- Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) involves holding financial assets from a country outside of the investor’s own.
- FPI holdings can include stocks, American Depository Receipts, Global Depository Receipts, bonds, mutual funds, and exchange traded funds.
- FPI consists of passive ownership. An investor does not actively manage the investments or the companies that issue the investments. They do not have direct control over the assets or the businesses.
- Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) operates the FPIs. Recently, SEBI has introduced the Foreign Portfolio Investors Regulations, 2019.
- FPIs also need to follow the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
What Includes Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in India?
- Purchase of shares and stocks of Indian companies on stock exchanges by foreign investors.
- Investment in government securities (like bonds) by foreign investors.
- Investment in corporate bonds and debentures by foreign portfolio investors.
- Mutual funds or other collective investment schemes managed by foreign entities investing in Indian securities.
- Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) investing in listed securities.
- Derivative instruments linked to Indian securities, traded by foreign investors.
- Units of Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) bought by foreign portfolio investors.
Hence option (c) is correct.
An individual must fulfill the following conditions to register as FPI:
- As per the Income-tax Act 1961, the applicant should not be a non-resident Indian
- Should not be a citizen of a country that falls under the public statement of FATF.
- Must be eligible to invest in securities outside the country.
- To invest in securities, he/she must have the approval of the MOA / AOA / Agreement.
- A certificate that grants the applicant holds an interest of the development of the securities market.
- In case the bank is the applicant, it must belong to a nation whose central bank is a member of the Bank for International Settlements.
Impacts of FPI Withdrawal from Indian Equities:
- Stock Market Decline: Large-scale FPI selling leads to fall in stock prices due to increased supply of shares in the market. This can trigger broader market corrections or increased volatility.
- Currency Depreciation: FPIs usually bring in foreign currency to buy equities. Their withdrawal means selling of Indian rupees for foreign currencies, causing rupee depreciation. This can make imports costlier and increase inflationary pressures.
- Reduced Market Liquidity: FPIs contribute significantly to market liquidity. Withdrawal reduces liquidity, potentially leading to wider bid-ask spreads and reduced ease of trading.
- Increased Cost of Capital: Falling equity prices and market instability can deter new investment and increase the cost of raising capital for Indian companies via equity markets.
- Pressure on Financial Markets: FPI outflows can spill over into other asset classes like debt, increasing yields on government bonds and raising borrowing costs for the government and corporates.
- Investor Sentiment and Confidence: Large FPI sell-offs may signal or cause a loss of investor confidence in the Indian economy or policy environment, affecting domestic investor behavior as well.
- Impact on Economic Growth: Reduced investment and higher borrowing costs can slow down economic activities, impacting growth prospects.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India? 1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India 2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies 3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies 4. Portfolio investment Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
3. Joha Rice, Kaji Nemu and Tezpur Litchi are few GI tagged products from which of the following states?
(a) Bihar
(b) Manipur
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam
Answer: (d) Assam
Explanation:
In NEWS: Assam’s GI farm basket gains with Joha Rice and Boka Saul rice and Kaji Nemu products and Tezpur Litchi see ~6–11% savings, lifting demand and farm incomes
Joha Rice:
- Origin: Indigenous to Assam.
- Features: Naturally fragrant, soft texture, and excellent taste. Grown without synthetic chemicals in traditional methods.
- Uses: Preferred in traditional Assamese dishes like pulao and kheer.
Kaji Nemu (Assam Lemon):
- Citrus fruit (lemon) variety native to Assam.
- Features: Elongated, smooth-skinned, juicy, less acidic, and highly aromatic.
- Medicinal Use: Rich in vitamin C and known for digestive benefits.
- Culinary Role: Widely used in Assamese cuisine for garnishing and pickles.
Tezpur Litchi:
- Type: Litchi fruit cultivated around Tezpur town, Assam.
- Features: Known for its sweet taste, juicy pulp, and small seed — indicating high pulp-to-seed ratio.
- Climate Suitability: Grown in the alluvial soil and humid subtropical climate of Tezpur.
All three products are from the state of Assam. Hence option (d) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma 3. Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172651
4. The Sahyog Portal, recently seen in the news was launched to:
(a) Promote digital payments between government agencies.
(b) Support rural digital literacy programs.
(c) Facilitate takedown of illegal online content by authorised agencies.
(d) Enable Aadhaar verification of social media users.
Answer: (c) Facilitate takedown of illegal online content by authorised agencies.
Explanation:
In NEWS: X, formerly Twitter, said that it would appeal the Karnataka High Court’s decision that rejected its challenge to the Union government’s Sahyog portal.
Sahyog Portal:
- Sahyog Portal is a digital platform launched by the Union Government of India to enable State police and authorised agencies to send takedown notices to social media platforms.
- The portal aims to facilitate swift removal of content deemed illegal or harmful, especially in cases involving public order, national security, or unlawful content. Hence option (c) is correct.
- It functions as part of the implementation of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
Functionality:
- Acts as a centralised interface for sending takedown notices.
- Targets illegal content (e.g., misinformation, hate speech, threats to public order).
- Bypasses the need for lengthy judicial orders in urgent cases.
- It brings into focus the balance between national security and free speech.
- The portal raises important questions on intermediary liability, due process, and digital rights in India.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2018) Q. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (a) Exoplanets (b) Cryptocurrency (c) Cyber attacks (d) Mini satellites |
6. What is the purpose of ‘Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP)’, launched by NASA recently?
(a) To explore and map the very boundaries of the heliosphere
(b) To study the surface features of exoplanets in nearby star systems
(c) To observe black holes and gravitational waves from deep space
(d) To monitor the ozone depletion and atmospheric changes on Earth from space
Answer: (a) To explore and map the very boundaries of the heliosphere
Explanation:
In NEWS: NASA IMAP to show how solar particles are energised and shield us
Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP):
- IMAP was launched by NASA on September 24 to study the heliosphere’s boundary and trace energetic particles. Hence option (a) is correct.
- The spacecraft is equipped with 10 scientific instruments, including neutral atom detectors (IMAP-Lo, Hi, Ultra) and sensors for magnetic fields, dust, and solar-wind particles.
- IMAP will operate from the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1), about 1.6 million km from Earth, enabling stable observation with minimal fuel use.
IMAP aims to:
- Map the heliosphere’s outer boundary (heliopause)
- Track particle acceleration and movement
- Observe solar wind–interstellar medium interactions
- IMAP-Lo will detect interstellar hydrogen and deuterium, possibly distinguishing primary vs. secondary atomic populations at the heliopause.
Applications & Impacts
IMAP data will:
- Improve space weather forecasting
- Aid in protecting satellites and astronauts
- Enhance knowledge of solar system shielding from cosmic rays
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna’ (eLISA) project? (a) To detect neutrinos (b) To detect gravitational waves (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems |
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Dragonflies and damselflies are bioindicators of wetland ecosystem health.
Statement II: Larvae of Dragonflies and damselflies require clean, oxygen-rich water to survive.
Statement III: One dragonfly can consume 30 to 100 mosquitoes per day, making them ecologically important for natural mosquito control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Dragonfly survey in Delhi brings good news: Surge in count, new species logged
Dragonfly survey in Delhi:
- Delhi is home to approximately 51 species of odonates, which include dragonflies and damselflies.
- A recent dragonfly survey across seven DDA biodiversity parks in Delhi recorded 13,253 individual dragonflies, a 54% increase from 8,630 recorded last year.
- The Yellow-tailed Ashy Skimmer (Potamarcha congener) was recorded for the first time at the Yamuna Biodiversity Park.
- Kamla Nehru Ridge reported the highest count of dragonflies (3,935 individuals) and maximum species diversity (26 species) among all surveyed parks.
Dragonflies and damselflies – bioindicators:
- Dragonflies and damselflies are bioindicators of wetland ecosystem health, as their larvae require clean, oxygen-rich water to survive. Hence Statement II is correct explains Statement I
- One dragonfly can consume 30 to 100 mosquitoes per day, making them ecologically important for natural mosquito control. While Statement III focuses on their predatory role, it also supports Statement I because their presence reflects overall wetland health, both in terms of biodiversity and functional ecosystems. Their mosquito control role strengthens their ecological significance, making them useful bioindicators and ecosystem service providers.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff subsoil percolation and evaporation. (b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. (c) Wetlands play vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. |
7. With reference to the UMEED Portal, recently launched by the Government of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a centralised digital platform for real-time uploading, verification, and monitoring of Waqf properties.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Nearly four months after the Centre launched the UMEED portal, a centralised digital platform for real-time uploading, verification, and monitoring of Waqf properties, only around 4,000 of the total 8.72 lakh Waqf establishments spread across 30 States and Union Territories have been registered.
UMEED Portal:
- Launched by: Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Full form: Unified Management of Electronic Estate of Auqaf through Digitalization (UMEED).
- Objective:
- Centralised digital platform for real-time uploading, verification, and monitoring of Waqf properties. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Ensures transparency, accountability, and better governance of Waqf assets.
- Coverage: About 8.72 lakh Waqf establishments across 30 States and Union Territories.
- Progress (as of 4 months post-launch): Only ~4,000 establishments registered.
Significance:
- Prevents encroachment & misuse of Waqf lands.
- Facilitates digital record-keeping, income generation, and welfare schemes.
- Strengthens institutional capacity of State Waqf Boards.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
8. With reference to “Red Sanders” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
I. It is an evergreen tree.
II. It is an endemic tree species native to the Southern Eastern Ghats of India.
III. It is protected under Schedule II of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III
Answer: (d) II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: National Biodiversity Authority sanctions ₹82 Lakh for Red Sanders Conservation in Andhra Pradesh under Access and Benefit Sharing Mechanism
Red Sanders Conservation:
- National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) sanctioned ₹82 lakh to the Andhra Pradesh Biodiversity Board.
- This initiative aims to raise 1 lakh Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) saplings for distribution to farmers.
- This initiative is part of the Trees Outside Forests (ToF) programme.
- It receives funding through the Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (amended in 2023).
- This initiative ensures benefits reach local communities, individuals, and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).
Red Sanders:
- Red Sanders is a rare and endemic tree species native to the Southern Eastern Ghats of India, particularly found in Andhra Pradesh (districts: Chittoor, Kadapa, Anantapur, and Kurnool). Hence statement II is correct.
- It is valued for its deep red heartwood, used in high-end furniture, musical instruments, and traditional medicine.
- It is a deciduous tree with hardwood. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- It grows in dry deciduous forests and on rocky, hilly terrain, and is slow-growing, requiring years to mature.
- Due to its high commercial value, Red Sanders has been subjected to extensive illegal logging and smuggling, both domestically and internationally.
Listed:
- Under Schedule II of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Hence statement III is incorrect.
- In Appendix II of CITES – international trade regulated.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2172620
9. Consider the following statements with respect to poverty line in India:
1. India’s last officially accepted poverty line is based on the Rangarajan Committee (2014) recommendations.
2. According to the Rangarajan Committee recommendations, a person spending less than ₹27/day in rural areas and ₹33/day in urban areas (at 2011–12 prices) was considered below the poverty line (BPL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: In a recent study, economists from the RBI updated the Rangarajan poverty line for 20 major states.
Poverty Line in India:
- India’s last officially accepted poverty line is based on the Tendulkar Committee (2009) recommendations, using 2011–12 NSSO consumption data. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- According to Tendulkar methodology, a person spending less than ₹27/day in rural areas and ₹33/day in urban areas (at 2011–12 prices) was considered below the poverty line (BPL). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Tendulkar Committee shifted focus from calorie intake to a broader consumption-based poverty line, including health and education.
- The Rangarajan Committee (2014) proposed a higher poverty line (₹32/day rural, ₹47/day urban) and estimated poverty at 29.5%, but its recommendations were not adopted officially.
- RBI economists (2024) updated Rangarajan poverty lines using HCES 2022–23, but this is not yet government-endorsed.
- India has not officially updated its poverty line since 2011–12, despite new surveys like the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2022–23.
- NITI Aayog, replacing the Planning Commission, now uses the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) for tracking non-income-based poverty, aligned with the UNDP-SDG framework.
- According to NITI Aayog’s MPI (2023), 11.28% of India’s population is multidimensionally poor, down from 29.17% in 2013–14.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because (a) poverty rates vary from State to State (b) price levels vary from State to State (c) Gross State Product varies from State to State (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State |
10. Which of the following organisms perform a waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honey Bees
(d) Wasps
Answer: (c) Honey Bees
Explanation:
- Honey bees use a complex dance called the “waggle dance” to communicate the location of food sources to other bees in their hive. Hence option (c) is correct.
- The dance includes specific movements and vibrations that convey information about the direction and distance to the food source relative to the sun.