1. Which among the following initiatives is a joint India–EU connectivity and development project?
(a) MAHASAGAR
(b) SAGAR-Mission
(c) Global Maritime Security Initiative
(d) Indo-Pacific Defense Alliance
Answer: (a) MAHASAGAR
Explanation:
In NEWS: A document issued by the European Union earlier this month, outlines its agenda for ties with India. It is based on five pillars: economy, emerging tech, security, global connectivity, and people-to-people ties
India-EU Strategic Agenda 2025:
1. Economic & Trade Cooperation
Bilateral Trade:
In 2024, goods trade reached €120 billion, with services adding another €60 billion.
Investment:
Approximately 6,000 European companies operate in India, employing around 3 million people directly.
Free Trade Agreement (FTA):
Both parties aim to conclude negotiations by the end of 2025, focusing on reducing tariff and non-tariff barriers.
Investment Protection Agreement (IPA):
Discussions are ongoing to safeguard investments between the two regions.
2. Global Connectivity
EU’s Global Gateway:
Mobilizes €300 billion globally to support energy, digital, and transport infrastructure.
India’s Initiatives:
India boasts initiatives such as MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth). Hence option (a) is correct.
Collaborative Projects:
The EU-India Connectivity Partnership aims to enhance infrastructure connectivity between the two regions.
3. Emerging Technologies
Digital Economy:
Emphasis on cooperation in areas like artificial intelligence, 5G, and cybersecurity.
Research & Innovation:
Joint efforts to promote research and development in cutting-edge technologies.
4. Security & Defence
Strategic Partnership: Plans to establish an EU-India Security and Defence Partnership focusing on:
1. Maritime Security
2. Cybersecurity
3. Counterterrorism
4. Crisis Management
Defense Industry Collaboration:
Enhancing cooperation in defense industrial expansion and modernization.
5. People-to-People Ties
Cultural Exchange:
Initiatives to promote cultural understanding and exchange programs.
Educational Collaboration:
Strengthening academic partnerships and student exchange programs.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss? (a) The European Union (b) The World Bank (c) The Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (d) FAO |
Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-india-eu-strategic-agenda-10273658/
2. With reference to “Armed Forces Special Powers Act” Consider the following statements.
1. In India, both the Centre and the States are empowered to impose AFSPA in a disturbed area.
2. AFSPA is currently in force in J&K, Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur, and Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The armed forces have been empowered to open fire, enter and search without warrant, and arrest any person and indemnity for the acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: AFSPA extended in parts of Manipur, Arunachal and Nagaland for another six months
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
- The AFSPA has been in effect in Manipur since 1980, with gradual withdrawals and reintroductions based on the security situation
- Under Section 3 of the Act, Both Central Govt or Governor of State can declare a region as “disturbed area” to impose AFSPA. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- AFSPA is currently in force in J&K, parts of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It was completely lifted from Meghalaya in April 2018 & Tripura in 2015
- The armed forces have been empowered to open fire; enter and search without warrant, and arrest any person and indemnity for the acts. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Disturbed area is an area in such a disturbed or dangerous condition that the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary.
- Special powers of the armed forces under Section 4: Any commissioned officer, warrant officer, non-commissioned officer or any other person of equivalent rank in the armed forces is given “special powers” under AFSPA, although they must be exercised with extreme caution.
- After giving due warning as considered necessary, Fire upon or use force, even causing death, against any person acting in contravention of laws:
- Prohibiting assembly of 5 or more persons
- Prohibiting carrying weapons or firearms/ammunition/explosives.
- If reasonable suspicion exists, can also arrest a person without a warrant; enter or search a premises without a warrant
- Unless otherwise authorized by the central government, Army soldiers operating under the AFSPA are shielded from all legal actions.
3. A situation in which monetary policy becomes ineffective because interest rates are already very low (near zero), and people prefer to hold cash rather than invest in bonds or other assets. This economic phenomena is called as
(a) Stagflation
(b) Liquidity trap
(c) Hyperinflation
(d) Recession
Answer: (b) Liquidity trap
Explanation:
In NEWS: Recent economic trends in India indicate the presence of a liquidity trap.
Despite the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lowering interest rates by 100 basis points since February 2025, credit growth remains modest and demand for borrowing is subdued.
Concept of Liquidity Trap
- A situation in which monetary policy becomes ineffective because interest rates are already very low (near zero), and people prefer to hold cash rather than invest in bonds or other assets. Hence option (b) is correct.
- This was seen during the Covid-19 pandemic and is now evident in India. Lowering interest rates alone fails to boost economic activity when businesses face weak demand and excess capacity.
Origin: Concept introduced by John Maynard Keynes during the Great Depression (1930s).
Key Features:
1. Low/Zero Interest Rates – Cutting rates further does not stimulate borrowing.
2. High Liquidity Preference – People hoard money instead of investing or consuming.
3. Ineffective Monetary Policy – Traditional tools of RBI/central bank fail to revive demand.
4.Weak Credit Growth – Even if banks have funds, businesses and households don’t borrow.
Causes:
- Expectations of deflation or economic slowdown.
- Loss of confidence in financial markets.
- High savings despite low returns.
- Structural issues in the economy (low demand, high inequality).
Implications:
- Stagnant growth and unemployment.
- Inflation remains low or turns negative (deflation).
- Risk of prolonged economic depression.
Policy Responses:
1. Fiscal Policy: Higher government spending and targeted stimulus.
2. Unconventional Monetary Policy: Quantitative easing, negative interest rates, forward guidance.
3. Structural Reforms: Boosting consumption, investment, and employment.
Example:
- Great Depression (1930s, USA).
- Japan’s “Lost Decade” (1990s–2000s).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks (b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks (c) Increase in the banking habit of the people (d) Increase in the population of the country |
Source: https://www.gktoday.in/liquidity-trap-and-its-impact-on-indian-economy/
4. Consider the following benefits of desert soilification:
1. Increased crop yield
2. Reduced irrigation requirement
3. Dependence on synthetic fertilizers
4. Restoration of barren lands
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: New farming technology holds potential to stop desertification
Desert Soilification:
- Desert soilification involves the application of bioformulations and polymers to desert sand, transforming it into a soil-like medium suitable for agriculture.
- This process enhances soil fertility, water retention, and plant stress resistance, making it feasible to grow crops in arid environments.
How It Works
Polymer Application:
Polymers are applied to desert sand to bind sand particles together, creating a stable structure that mimics soil.
Bioformulation:
Indigenous microorganisms are introduced to the treated sand to promote nutrient cycling and improve soil health.
Water Retention:
The treated sand exhibits increased water-holding capacity, reducing the need for frequent irrigation. Hence statement
Stress Resistance:
Crops grown in soilified sand show enhanced tolerance to heat and arid conditions.
Applications and Benefits
Crop Cultivation:
Successful trials have been conducted with crops like wheat, bajra, guar gum, and chickpea.
Water Efficiency:
Soilified lands require fewer irrigation cycles compared to traditional farming methods. Hence 2 is correct.
High Yield:
For instance, wheat yields on solidified desert land have been recorded at a ratio of 1:20 (seed to harvest), which is twice the output of untreated desert land. Hence 1 is correct.
Low Input Cost:
The use of locally available bio-agents and simple application techniques makes the process cost-effective. Soilification could reduce dependence on synthetic fertilizers by improving natural soil fertility.Hence 3 is incorrect.
Eco-Restoration:
This method helps in converting barren deserts into cultivable farmland without the need for heavy machinery. Hence 4 is correct.
Global Significance
Desertification Control:
Soilification can play a crucial role in preventing the expansion of deserts, such as the Thar Desert, by restoring soil fertility.
Water Security:
In water-scarce regions, this technology minimizes groundwater use, which is critical in areas like Rajasthan.
Food Security:
Enabling the cultivation of staple crops in arid belts contributes to enhancing food security.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture? 1. Sowing of wheat without burning the residue of previous crop. 2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
5. With reference to the Wassenaar Arrangement, consider the following statements:
I. It is a legally binding treaty that regulates global arms transfers.
II. It aims to prevent the destabilizing accumulation of arms and dual-use goods.
III. India became a member of the Wassenaar Arrangement in 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only
Answer: (c) II and III only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The Wassenaar Arrangement: the need to reform export control regimes
The Wassenaar Arrangement:
- The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral agreement that promotes transparency and responsibility in the export of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. Hence statement II is correct.
- It aims to prevent the destabilizing accumulation of these items, particularly by terrorists, by establishing common export control policies among its 42 participating states.
- Operational since 1996, the Arrangement is not a legally binding treaty but a political commitment where members exchange information on transfers and denials, share best practices, and work through consensus. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- Purpose: To ensure that the transfer of conventional arms and dual-use items (which can be used for both civilian and military purposes) does not contribute to destabilizing military capabilities or fall into the hands of terrorists.
- Function: It serves as an information exchange forum where participating states provide information on arms transfers, share insights on potential proliferation risks, and report on export license denials.
- Structure: The Arrangement operates through a Plenary meeting, where decisions are made by consensus, and a small Secretariat based in Vienna, Austria.
- Scope: It covers conventional arms, such as small arms and light weapons, military aircraft, and armored vehicles, as well as a wide range of dual-use goods and technologies.
- Membership: It includes 42 participating states, primarily from NATO and the European Union, with India becoming the 42nd member in 2017. Hence statement III is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following: 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
6. With reference to the ‘World Tourism Day’, consider the following statements:
I. The World Tourism Day is an initiative of the World Travel & Tourism Council (WTTC).
II. It is observed annually on September 27 and was celebrated for the first time in the year 1980.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
In NEWS:
World Tourism Day 2025:
- World Tourism Day, observed annually on September 27, is an initiative of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Hence statement I is incorrect.
- It commemorates the adoption of the UNWTO statutes in 1970 and emphasises the sector’s role in supporting the socio–economic growth of countries and advancing the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- It was celebrated for the first time in the year 1980. Hence statement II is correct.
- The theme for World Tourism Day 2025 is “Tourism and Sustainable Transformation,” emphasising tourism’s power to promote positive change.
- Malaysia will host the World Tourism Day and the World Tourism Conference (WTC) 2025 in the city of Melaka from September 27th to 29th.
Major Tourism Schemes & Projects in India:
Swadesh Darshan & Swadesh Darshan 2.0
- 110 total projects across thematic circuits (Buddhist, Coastal, Tribal, etc.)
- SD 2.0 promotes sustainable and destination-centric tourism.
- Key projects: Bodh Gaya, Hampi, Bangaram, Sohra Caves, Attari, etc.
Challenge-Based Destination Development (CBDD)
- 36 projects in 2024-25 across eco, spiritual, and cultural themes.
- Notable projects in Gujarat, Punjab, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Manipur, etc.
PRASHAD Scheme
- Focus on pilgrimage site development.
- 54 projects across 28 States/UTs with ₹1168 crore sanctioned.
- Key sites: Tripura Sundari, Chamundeshwari Temple, Patna Sahib, Somnath, etc.
Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI)
- 40 projects sanctioned for ₹3295.76 crore.
- Fully funded by the Central Government.
- Example: Jal Mahal, Jaipur.
Dekho Apna Desh
Promotes domestic tourism via online activities, campaigns, and polls.
Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP-I & II)
- Develops villages along strategic border areas.
- Encourages eco, cultural, and heritage tourism.
Capacity Building (CBSP)
- Paryatan Mitra/Didi initiative to train locals, women, and tribal communities.
Digital Transformation
- Incredible India Digital Portal & Content Hub launched.
- Features AI chatbot, booking tools, and multimedia content.
Homestay Promotion
- Support for rural & tribal homestays via NIDHI portal.
- ₹5 lakh assistance per homestay; collateral-free Mudra Loans available.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2171731
7. ‘Drone wall’ project , sometimes seen in the news, is related to
(a) A response to repeated airspace violations by drones, especially along the EU’s eastern borders with Russia and Ukraine.
(b) A European civilian infrastructure plan aimed at integrating drone technology into urban delivery systems across member states.
(c) A collaborative project by EU nations to construct physical barriers and electronic fences along disputed land borders with neighboring countries.
(d) A NATO-led military exercise involving the deployment of surveillance drones for maritime security operations in the Mediterranean Sea.
Answer: (a) A response to repeated airspace violations by drones, especially along the EU’s eastern borders with Russia and Ukraine.
Explanation:
In NEWS: European defence ministers agree to press on with ‘drone wall’ project as airspace violations mount
‘Drone wall’ project:
- European defence ministers have agreed to move forward with a “drone wall” along borders with Russia and Ukraine to better detect, track, and intercept drones violating airspace.
- Recent incidents involving rogue drones, some blamed on Russia, have increased pressure on the EU and NATO to respond more decisively.
- The planned drone wall could take up to a year to build, and detailed technical and conceptual planning is underway among the member states.
- The priority will be deploying an effective detection system, with coordination among the defence industries of European states.
Purpose & Trigger Events
- The initiative is a response to repeated airspace violations by drones (and some manned aircraft), especially along the EU’s eastern borders with Russia and Ukraine. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Incidents include drones over Poland, fighter jets over Estonia, and disruptions at Danish airports.
Participants
- Defence ministers from at least 10 EU frontline countries are involved: Bulgaria, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Romania, Slovakia, Hungary.
- Ukraine is ready to join, sharing its experiences and technologies.
- NATO is involved as observer or partner in coordination.
Structure & Scope
- The project is part of a broader framework called “Eastern Flank Watch”. It has three components:
- Drone Wall (air defence / detection & interception of unmanned threats)
- Land Wall (traditional border protections on land)
- Sea Wall (maritime border defence)
- The immediate priority is detection systems (radars, sensors, acoustic systems) followed by systems to intercept/neutralise malicious drones.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) waste management technology (b) wireless communication technology (c) solar power production technology (d) water conservation technology |
8. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India is a member of the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
Statement II: As per UNCLOS Article 156(2), all States Parties to UNCLOS are automatically members of ISA.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: India wins second mineral exploration contract in the Indian Ocean:
- India secured a second exploration contract from the International Seabed Authority (ISA) to explore Polymetallic Sulphides (PMS) in the Carlsberg Ridge (Indian Ocean), making India the largest holder of PMS exploration area globally.
Why It Matters:
- PMS are rich in copper, zinc, gold, silver, etc. — crucial for clean tech and electronics.
- Deep-sea resources help reduce dependence on imports and enhance mineral security.
Strategic Location:
- Carlsberg Ridge is near India (2°N), making exploration more accessible and strategically important.
- Known for hydrothermal vents — ideal for PMS deposits.
India’s Readiness:
- Led by NCPOR, exploration begins in 2026 under the Deep Ocean Mission.
- Phased surveys using advanced tools (AUVs, ROVs, etc.).
Wider Impact:
- Strengthens India’s Blue Economy ambitions.
- Enhances technological capability, strategic influence, and resource sustainability.
The International Seabed Authority (ISA):
- The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established under the 1982 UNCLOS and the 1994 Implementation Agreement.
- ISA is responsible for organizing and regulating all mineral-related activities in the international seabed area (“The Area”) for the benefit of all humankind.
- ISA is mandated to ensure the protection of the marine environment from the harmful effects of deep-seabed activities.
- Headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica, ISA became operational on 16 November 1994, and fully autonomous by June 1996.
- As per UNCLOS Article 156(2), all States Parties to UNCLOS are automatically members of ISA. India is a member of UNCLOS and hence a member of the International Seabed Authority (ISA). Hence both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
- As of 2 September 2024, ISA has 170 members (169 countries + the European Union).
- The Area governed by ISA covers about 54% of the world’s ocean floor and is designated as the common heritage of humankind.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
9. Consider the following statements about the Bhakti movement in temple worship:
1. It encouraged participation of all people regardless of caste.
2. It saw an increased role of temple music, dance, and devotional singing.
3. It led to the abolition of temple rituals and sanctum sanctorum architecture.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: How Hindu temples survived political upheavals and philosophical shifts
- Early Hindu sacred practices revolved around nature worship such as trees, rivers, mountains, and animals.
- Around the 2nd century CE, image worship began with recognizable deities like Shiva and Vishnu appearing in sculptures.
- Enclosed sanctuaries and temples of brick and stone emerged by the 5th–6th centuries CE (e.g., Bhitargaon, Deogarh).
- Rock-cut temples (Ellora, Elephanta) and free-standing temples flourished, with regional styles such as Nagara (North) and Dravidian (South) evolving.
- Initially, temples functioned as ritual laboratories for Tantric practices, but over time, with the Bhakti movement, they became public devotional spaces.
The Bhakti movement emphasized personal devotion, music, dance, and collective worship, reducing priestly exclusivity.
Shift in Worship Practices
- Earlier temples were ritual-centric, dominated by priests and Tantric traditions.
- Bhakti movement made worship more personal, emotional, and accessible.
Role of Temples
- Temples became centres of collective devotion—public singing, dancing, storytelling.
- Rituals coexisted with bhajans, kirtans, and folk performances. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Social Inclusivity
- Bhakti saints challenged caste and ritual barriers.
- Temples increasingly welcomed participation by all social groups, not just elites. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Cultural Flourishing
- Growth of regional devotional traditions—Alvars and Nayanars in Tamil Nadu, Varkari in Maharashtra, Sant tradition in North India.
- Temple worship absorbed local art, literature, and music.
Resilience in Political Upheavals
- Even when political forces targeted grand temples, the Bhakti tradition kept worship alive in small shrines and homes.
Legacy
- Established temples as not only ritual sites but also social, cultural, and artistic hubs.
- Strengthened continuity of Hindu worship practices up to the present day.
- Bhakti did not abolish rituals or temple structures; it democratized access and enriched practices. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the (a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent (b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of Indian can be classified (c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture (d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India |
10. Consider the following fauna:
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
EXPLANATION:
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
- A primate of the Western Ghats.
- Diurnal (active in the day), not nocturnal. Hence 1 is incorrect.
2. Malabar Civet
- Critically Endangered small carnivore.
- Nocturnal, mainly active at night.
3. Sambar Deer
- Large deer species found widely in India.
- Primarily nocturnal/crepuscular (active at dusk, night, and dawn).