1. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
A person is eligible to be appointed a district judge, only if
1. He/She must have at least 10 years of practice as an advocate or pleader.
2. He/She must be recommended by the Supreme Court of India.
3. He/She must already be in judicial service of the Union or the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC urged to fill up nearly 5,000 posts in district courts
Article 233 of the Constitution:
1. Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
2. A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State shall only be eligible to be appointed a district judge if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment.
Eligibility – The clause specifically carves out eligibility for direct recruitment from the Bar to the post of District Judge.
- Candidates must have at least 7 years of practice as an advocate/pleader.
- Must be recommended by the High Court.
- Candidates must not already be in judicial service of the Union or the State. Hence all the statements are incorrect.
Two sources of recruitment for District Judges:
- Promotion quota from the subordinate judicial service (Civil Judges, etc.).
- Direct recruitment quota from advocates/pleaders with 7+ years’ experience (this is the Bar quota under Article 233(2)).
Judicial interpretation:
- In Chandramouleshwar Prasad v. Patna High Court (1969), the SC clarified that consultation with the High Court is mandatory.
- In Deepak Aggarwal v. Keshav Kaushik (2013), the SC held that judicial officers already in service cannot be considered under Article 233(2) for direct recruitment.
- The Constitution Bench (2024–25 hearings) is revisiting this issue, because officers who were once advocates but later joined judicial service want their past bar experience to be counted.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
2. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘PRAGATI’, recently seen in the news?
(a) A digital platform for real-time governance review by bringing together the Prime Minister, Union Secretaries, and State Chief Secretaries.
(b) A rural development scheme aimed at promoting self-help groups and microfinance.
(c) An initiative to promote renewable energy and green technology in urban areas.
(d) A parliamentary committee for assessing financial performance of central ministries.
Answer: (a) A digital platform for real-time governance review by bringing together the Prime Minister, Union Secretaries, and State Chief Secretaries.
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM Chairs 49th PRAGATI Meeting
- The Prime Minister chaired the 49th edition of PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation).
- Eight key infrastructure projects from sectors such as Mines, Railways, Water Resources, Industrial Corridors, and Power.
- Projects spread across 15 States/UTs with a total investment of over ₹65,000 crore.
PRAGATI – Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation:
- It is an ICT-based, multi-purpose, multi-modal platform launched by the Prime Minister of India in 2015.
- Objective: To bring together the Prime Minister, Union Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries of the States on one platform for real-time governance review. Hence option (a) is correct.
Functions:
- Monitors implementation of flagship programmes and schemes.
- Tracks projects involving investments above ₹500 crore.
- Reviews public grievances and complaints received through the CPGRAMS (Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System).
Technology Used:
- Combines video-conferencing, data management, and digital monitoring tools.
- Enables the PM to directly interact with Central and State officials.
Impact:
- Faster resolution of bottlenecks in infrastructure projects.
- Enhances accountability and transparency.
- Helps improve Centre–State coordination.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’,recently seen in the news? (a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government. (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings. (d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government. |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2170926
3. With reference to the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a constitutional post that derives its authority from executive powers of the Union under Article 53 & 78 as part of defence administration.
2. CDS is an ex-officio member of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS).
3. He/She serves for 5 years or until attaining the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
4. He/She acts as the principal military advisor to the Union Cabinet and Defence Minister, aligning with the principle of civilian supremacy over armed forces.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Government Extends the Service of General Anil Chauhan as Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) & Secretary, Department of Military Affairs
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
Creation and Legal Basis:
- The post of CDS was created in December 2019 by the Government of India to strengthen tri-service integration.
- CDS functions under the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
Constitutional/Polity Angle:
- The position is not directly mentioned in the Constitution, but it derives authority from executive powers of the Union under Article 53 & 78, as part of defence administration. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Acts as the principal military advisor to the Union Cabinet and Defence Minister, aligning with the principle of civilian supremacy over armed forces (Articles 53, 74, and 77). Hence statement 4 is correct.
Rank and Status:
- CDS holds the rank of four-star General / Admiral / Air Chief Marshal.
- Is an ex-officio member of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS). Hence statement 2 is correct.
Tenure: Serves for 3 years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Functions and Responsibilities:
- Integrates defence planning, operations, logistics, and procurement across Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- Promotes jointness in training, operations, and strategy among the three services.
- Heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) to streamline tri-service matters.
- Advises on national security strategy and modernization of armed forces.
Significance for Governance:
- Enhances efficiency, accountability, and coordination in defence management.
- Reduces inter-service rivalry and duplication of resources.
- Strengthens civil-military interface in line with democratic control of armed forces.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct options using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2170934
4. Consider the following countries:
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Egypt
5. Brazil
6. South Korea
7. Australia
Which of the above countries are part of Global South as separated by the Brandt Line?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 7 only
(d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Global South must work together, says Jaishankar
Global South:
- The term “Global South” refers to a group of countries, primarily in Africa, Asia, Latin America, and Oceania, that are generally characterized by lower economic development, less political influence in the global system, and a shared history of colonialism.
- The designation is not strictly geographical, as many of these nations, including China and India, are in the Northern Hemisphere.
Representative Countries of Global South:
- Asia: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Thailand, Indonesia, Vietnam, Philippines
- Africa: Nigeria, South Africa, Egypt, Kenya, Ghana
- Latin America: Brazil, Mexico, Argentina, Chile, Colombia
- Oceania: Papua New Guinea, Fiji
Hence 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
Representative Countries of Global North:
- North America: United States, Canada
- Europe: United Kingdom, France, Germany, Italy, Sweden, Norway
- East Asia / Pacific: Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand
Origin and evolution of the term
Coined in 1969: American activist Carl Oglesby used the term in the magazine Commonweal to describe the “northern dominance” over the “global South” during the Vietnam War.
Replacing the “Third World”: The term gained prominence after the end of the Cold War and the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, which dissolved the “Second World.” This rendered the Cold War-era term “Third World” obsolete, which had also become pejorative and associated with poverty. The “Global South” emerged as a more neutral alternative.
Brandt Line: The idea of a global north-south divide was popularized in the 1980s by the Brandt Report, which proposed a line separating the wealthier, industrialized North from the poorer, developing South. Though now outdated, this line remains a historical reference for global inequalities.
Key characteristics and comparisons with the Global North
| Feature | Global South | Global North |
| Economies | Historically agrarian-based and dependent on exporting raw materials. Many face challenges like high debt burdens and limited access to international financial markets. | Typically highly industrialized, with diversified and advanced economies. |
| Economic power | Less economic power historically, but growing rapidly. Projections suggest that by 2030, three of the four largest economies will be from the Global South (China, India, Indonesia). | Holds a disproportionate share of global wealth and controls most international finance, trade, and technology. |
| Political influence | Historically underrepresented in global governance bodies like the UN Security Council, World Bank, and IMF. Advocates for a more inclusive world order. | Holds significant political power in international organizations, which can lead to policies that favor developed nations. |
| Historical context | A shared history of colonialism and imperialism by European powers, which extracted resources and hindered local development. | Often former colonial powers that benefited from historical exploitation of the Global South. |
| Environmental issues | Disproportionately affected by climate change, despite having contributed far less to historical greenhouse gas emissions. | The primary historical contributor to global emissions and environmental damage. |
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? (a) Only three (b) Only four (c) Only five (d) All the six |
5. Consider the following statements:
I. World Food India 2025 is organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India.
II. “Where Flavors Meet Global Strategic Partnerships” is the theme of World Food India 2025.
III. In India, 100% FDI is permitted in the food processing sector under the automatic route.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: World Food India 2025, being organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries on September 25-28, 2025
World Food India (WFI) 2025:
- WFI 2025 is a strategic global platform for investment, innovation, and partnerships in the food sector.
- It aligns with Viksit Bharat 2047, aiming to make India a global leader in food processing—balancing scale, sustainability, and inclusive growth.
- Theme: “Where Flavors Meet Global Strategic Partnerships”. Hence statement II is correct.
- Venue: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
- Organised by: Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India. Hence statement I is correct.
Objective:
To position India as a Global Food Hub by showcasing its food processing potential, innovation, and investment opportunities, while forging global partnerships across the food value chain.
Key Features:
- Sectoral exhibitions in food processing, packaging, cold chains, pet food, HoReCa, post-harvest tech
- B2B, B2G, G2G meetings for business, investment, and strategic partnerships
- Conference & Knowledge Sessions with global experts
- Culinary experiences, live chef competitions, and fusion food displays
- Startup Grand Challenge for innovation, mentorship & funding
Food Processing Sector in India:
- The food processing sector contributes significantly to India’s GDP, employment, and exports, and is considered a sunrise sector of the Indian economy.
- India is the world’s largest producer of milk, onions, and pulses, and the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane, fruits & vegetables, tea, and eggs.
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity inflow of USD 7.33 billion was received in the food processing sector over the last decade.
- In 2024–25, agriculture and processed food exports touched USD 49.4 billion, with processed foods contributing 20.4% of this share (up from 13.7% in 2014–15).
- The sector provides employment to over 6.9 million people — 2.23 million in registered units and 4.68 million in the unregistered sector.
- 64 lakh food business operators are now registered, up from 25 lakh, reflecting growing formalisation in the sector.
Infrastructure support includes:
- 24 Mega Food Parks
- 22 Agro-processing Clusters
- 289 Cold Chain Projects
- 305 Processing and Preservation Units
Government has implemented key schemes like:
- Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)
- PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME)
- Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLISFPI) – ₹10,900 crore
- PLIS for Millet-Based Products (PLISMBP)
- 100% FDI is permitted in the food processing sector under the automatic route. Hence statement III is correct.
- The sector focuses on value addition, reduction of post-harvest losses, enhancing farmer incomes, and creating jobs in rural and semi-urban areas.
- India is promoting millets, plant-based proteins, Ready-to-Eat (RTE), and Ready-to-Cook (RTC) food products as part of future-ready food categories.
- Through initiatives like Make in India, the government aims to position India as a global food processing hub.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2011) Q. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”? 1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry. 2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage. 3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2170508
6. ‘Young Champions of the Earth Prize’ is awarded by the
(a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Answer: (b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indian entrepreneur among winners of UNEP’s 2025 Young Champions of the Earth prize
UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Prize – 2025:
- The Young Champions of the Earth Prize is a global initiative by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to recognize and support outstanding environmental innovators under the age of 30. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The prize honors young entrepreneurs and change-makers who are developing bold, scalable solutions to address pressing environmental challenges.
- In 2025, Jinali Mody, a 28-year-old Indian entrepreneur and founder of Banofi Leather, was one of the global winners.
- Her company, Banofi Leather, produces eco-friendly leather alternatives from banana crop waste, significantly reducing water usage and carbon emissions.
Eligibility:
- Participants must be between the ages of 18 and 30.
- They must have at least six months prior experience working on their environmental project.
Winners of the UNEP prize receive:
- US$ 20,000 in seed funding
- Mentorship from experts
- Global visibility and networking opportunities
The 2025 winners also include:
- Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya), founder of HyaPak, which creates biodegradable packaging from water hyacinth.
- Noemi Florea (USA), founder of Cycleau, developing greywater reuse systems for households.
- The prize promotes climate-smart, circular economy, and sustainable development solutions, highlighting the role of youth in building a greener planet.
- The UNEP initiative emphasizes innovation that addresses plastic pollution, water conservation, sustainable agriculture, and clean technology.
- The Young Champions of the Earth programme serves as a platform to empower next-generation environmental leaders across the globe.
7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Recently, a rare Fishing Cat was discovered at the Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan.
Statement II: Fishing Cats are specially adapted to wetland habitats such as mangroves, marshes, swamps, riverbanks, and floodplains.
Statement III: The Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve’s landscape consists of dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Rare Fishing Cat Discovered at Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve. Hence statement I is correct.
Prionailurus viverrinus (Fishing Cat):
- Prionailurus viverrinus, commonly known as the Fishing Cat, is a medium-sized wild cat species native to South and Southeast Asia.
- It is specially adapted to wetland habitats such as mangroves, marshes, swamps, riverbanks, and floodplains. Hence statement II is correct and explains statement I.
- The species is named “Fishing Cat” due to its unique ability to hunt fish, using partially webbed front feet to swim and catch aquatic prey.
- Prionailurus viverrinus is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss, wetland degradation, and human-wildlife conflict.
- The Fishing Cat is mainly nocturnal and solitary, known for its excellent swimming ability, even diving underwater to catch prey.
- It is found in countries like India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Cambodia, Thailand, and Indonesia, though its population is highly fragmented.
- In India, it is primarily found in the Sundarbans, Terai region, and eastern coastal areas, but was recently discovered in Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, expanding its known range.
- It is listed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, offering it the highest level of legal protection in the country.
Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve:
- Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is located in the Bundi district of Rajasthan, India.
- It was declared the 52nd Tiger Reserve of India and the 4th in Rajasthan in May 2022.
- RVTR acts as a critical tiger corridor between Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve (to the northeast) and Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve (to the southwest).
- The landscape consists of dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems, supporting diverse wildlife. Hence statement III is correct and explains statement I.
- It hosts species like tiger, leopard, striped hyena, sloth bear, jackal, nilgai, sambar, chinkara, and various bird and reptile species.
- RVTR is known for its rich biodiversity of small wild cats, including:
- Jungle Cat (Felis chaus)
- Rusty-spotted Cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus)
- Asiatic Wildcat (Felis lybica ornata)
- Caracal (Caracal caracal)
- Fishing Cat (Prionailurus viverrinus) – discovered here in 2025 for the first time
- The reserve also holds cultural significance, with ancient temples and historical ruins scattered across the region.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (a) Fishing cat (b) Orangutan (c) Otter (d) Sloth bear |
Source: https://www.gktoday.in/rare-fishing-cat-discovered-at-ramgarh-vishdhari-tiger-reserve/
8. Which among the following is/are India’s ‘Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)’ as mandated under the Paris Agreement?
1. Reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 33–35% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
2. Achieve 40% cumulative electric power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
3. Create additional carbon sink through forests and tree cover of 2.5 – 3 billion tonnes CO₂ equivalent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: India to release updated climate action plan ahead of COP30 meet in Brazil
- Under the Paris Agreement, every country is mandated to finalise and submit these NDCs every five years, with every successive NDC representing a progression over the existing one.
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):
1. Definition:
NDCs are climate action plans submitted by countries under the Paris Agreement (2015), outlining targets and measures to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
2. Purpose:
- To limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
- To guide domestic climate policies and track progress in emission reductions.
3. Voluntary but Binding in Submission:
Countries voluntarily set their targets, but submission and updating of NDCs is mandatory under the Paris Agreement.
4. Scope:
Covers mitigation measures (reducing emissions), adaptation measures (climate resilience), finance, technology transfer, and capacity building.
5. India’s NDCs:
- Reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 33–35% by 2030 (compared to 2005 levels).
- Achieve 40% cumulative electric power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
- Create additional carbon sink through forests and tree cover of 2.5 – 3 billion tonnes CO₂ equivalent. Hence all the statements are correct.
6. Reporting and Updates:
Countries are expected to update NDCs every 5 years, reflecting enhanced ambition over time.
7. Global Significance:
- Serves as the primary mechanism for countries to communicate climate commitments.
- Supports international transparency and accountability in climate action.
8. Linkage with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
NDCs are linked with SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), SDG 13 (Climate Action), and SDG 15 (Life on Land).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change (c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals |
9. The objective of the Production Gap Report published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is to
(a) monitor global renewable energy capacity and investments.
(b) assess the gap between planned fossil fuel production and climate-compatible levels to guide policy action.
(c) track greenhouse gas emissions from the transportation sector only.
(d) promote international trade of fossil fuels among developing countries.
Answer: (b) assess the gap between planned fossil fuel production and climate-compatible levels to guide policy action.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Production Gap Report: Global fossil fuel plans exceed Paris limits by 120% for 1.5°C
The Production Gap Report:
- The Production Gap Report is an annual assessment published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and partner organizations.
- It analyzes the difference between countries’ planned fossil fuel production and the levels consistent with limiting global warming to 1.5°C or 2°C above pre-industrial levels. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The report highlights the “production gap”—the gap between government plans for fossil fuel extraction and the reduction needed to meet international climate goals.
Key Findings of the 2025 Production Gap Report:
- Planned Fossil Fuel Production in 2030: Governments collectively plan higher levels of coal production through 2035, gas through 2050, and oil well beyond mid-century compared to projections made just two years ago.
- Coal Production: Projected to be 500% higher than the median 1.5°C pathway and 330% above the 2°C benchmark.
- Oil and Gas Production: Planned 2030 production exceeding Paris-aligned limits by 31% and 92%, respectively.
- Major Contributing Countries: China, the United States, Saudi Arabia, Brazil, and Nigeria are among the countries ramping up extraction.
Urgent Call for Action:
- Immediate Reductions Needed: To align with the Paris Agreement, coal use must be nearly phased out by 2040, while oil and gas production must fall by around 75% by 2050 compared to 2020 levels.
- Current Trajectories: Instead of reductions, fossil fuel output is projected to be more than 4.5 times higher than 1.5°C-consistent levels by 2050.
- Just Transition: Deliberate policies for a “just transition” are essential to cushion workers and communities dependent on fossil fuel industries.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, had been developed for (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world (b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading (c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries (d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time |
10. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
EXPLANATION:
- Indian squirrels do not make burrows in the ground; they build nests in trees, typically in branches or tree hollows. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- They often store food like nuts and seeds, sometimes burying them in the ground or hiding them in tree crevices. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Indian squirrels are omnivorous; they eat fruits, nuts, seeds, and occasionally insects and bird eggs. Hence statement 3 is correct.