1. Which of the following sectors allow 100% FDI under the automatic route?
1. Telecom
2. Defence manufacturing
3. Railway infrastructure
4. E-commerce marketplace model
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Insurance Bill Proposes 100% FDI to Boost Sector Growth
Sectors Allowing 100% FDI Through Automatic Route
- Agriculture & allied sectors (except plantations like tea/coffee require specific norms).
- Mining and exploration of metal & non-metal ores.
- Petroleum & natural gas (exploration activities).
- Manufacturing sector.
- Construction development projects.
- Railway infrastructure (excluding operations).
- E-commerce marketplace model (not inventory model).
- Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT).
- White-label ATM operations.
- Telecom services.
- Power including renewable energy.
- Civil aviation (greenfield airports).
Sectors Allowing 100% FDI But Through Government Route
- Defence industry (up to 74% automatic; 100% via govt route in cases of access to modern tech). Hence 2 is incorrect
- Satellites – establishment and operation.
- Print media (non-news, specialty journals).
- Food products retail trading (manufactured & produced in India).
- Banking (Private sector)—technically 74% automatic + 100% for NRIs; some sub-categories reach 100% with approvals.
Sectors With FDI Restrictions (Not 100%)
- Insurance sector → 74%
- Digital media → 26%
- News media → 26%
- Defence automatic limit → 74%
- Private security agencies → 74%
Prohibited Sectors (0% FDI)
- Lottery business
- Gambling & betting
- Tobacco manufacturing (cigarettes, cigars, etc.)
- Atomic energy
- Railway operations
- Real estate business (other than construction)
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2011) Q. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two? (a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital (b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors (c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market. (d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI |
2. Which of the following are the outcomes of the implementation of the four labour codes in India, effective from 21st November 2025?
I. ‘Gig work’, ‘Platform work’, and ‘Aggregators’ have been defined for the first time.
II. Textile workers are entitled to double wages for overtime work.
III. For IT & ITES Workers, release of Salary is mandatory by the 7th of every month.
IV. Women workers are permitted to work in night shifts across all establishments, subject to their consent and safety measures.
V. Fixed-term employees receive gratuity only after completing five years of service.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and V only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV
Explanation:
In NEWS: The four Labour Codes – the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020 and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 are being made effective from 21st November 2025
Benefits of Labour Reforms Across Key Sectors:
1. Fixed-Term Employees (FTE):
- FTEs to receive all benefits equal to permanent workers, including leave, medical, and social security.
- Gratuity eligibility after just one year, instead of five. Hence statement V is incorrect.
- Equal wages as permanent staff, increasing income and protection.
- Promotes direct hiring and reduces excessive contractualisation.
2. Gig & Platform Workers:
- ‘Gig work’, ‘Platform work’, and ‘Aggregators’ have been defined for the first time. Hence statement I is correct.
- Aggregators must contribute 1–2% of the annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid/payable to gig and platform workers.
- Aadhaar-linked Universal Account Number will make welfare benefits easy to access, fully portable, and available across states, regardless of migration.
3. Contract Workers:
- Fixed-term employees (FTE) will increase employability and ensure social security, legal protection like benefits equal to permanent employees.
- Fixed-term employees will become eligible for gratuity after one year of continuous service.
- Principal employer will provide health benefits and social security benefits to contract workers.
- Workers to get free annual health check-up.
4. Women Workers:
- Gender discrimination legally prohibited.
- Equal pay for equal work ensured.
- Women are permitted to work night shifts and in all types of work (including underground mining and heavy machinery), subject to their consent and mandatory safety measures. Hence statement IV is correct.
- Mandatory women’s representation in grievance redressal committees
- Provision to add parents-in-law in Family Definition of Female employees, expanding dependent coverage and ensuring inclusivity.
5. Youth Workers:
- Minimum wage is guaranteed for all workers.
- All workers to get appointment letters, – promoting social security, employment history and formal employment.
- Worker exploitation by employers is prohibited—payment of wages during leave has been made mandatory.
- To ensure a decent standard of living, workers will receive wages as per the floor wage determined by the Central Government.
6. MSME Workers:
- All MSME workers covered under the Social Security Code, 2020, eligibility based on employee count.
- Minimum wage guaranteed for all workers.
- Workers will have access to facilities such as canteens, drinking water, and rest areas.
- Provisions for standard working hours, double overtime wages, and paid leave.
- Timely wage payment ensured.
7. Beedi & Cigar Workers:
- Minimum wages guaranteed for all.
- Working hours capped at 8 -12 hours per day, 48 hours per week has been capped.
- Overtime Work beyond prescribed hours, to be consent based and pay at least double the normal wage rate.
- Timely payment of wages ensured.
- Workers eligible for Bonus after completing 30 days of work in a year.
8. Plantation Workers:
- Plantation workers are now brought under the OSHWC Code and the Social Security Code.
- Labour Codes apply to plantations with more than 10 workers or 5 or more hectares.
- Mandatory safety training on handling, storing, and using chemicals.
- Protective equipment mandatory to prevent accidents and chemical exposure.
- Workers and their families to get full ESI medical facilities; Education facilities for their children are also guaranteed.
9. Audio-Visual & Digital Media Workers:
- Digital and audio-visual workers, including journalists in electronic media, dubbing artists, and stunt persons will now receive full benefits.
- Mandatory appointment letter for all workers – clearly stating their designation, wages, and social security entitlements.
- Timely payment of wages ensured.
- Overtime Work beyond prescribed hours, to be consent based and pay at least double the normal wage rate.
10. Mine Workers:
- The Social Security Code treats certain commuting accidents as employment-related, subject to conditions of time, and place of employment.
- Central Government notified standards to standardize workplace occupational safety and health conditions.
- Health safety for all workers will be ensured. Free annual health check-up will be provided.
- Limit on working hours set to 8 to 12 hours per day, 48 hours per week to ensure health and work-life balance.
11. Hazardous Industry Workers:
- All workers will receive free annual health check-ups.
- Central Government will frame national standards for better safety of workers.
- Women can work in all establishments, including underground mining, heavy machinery, and hazardous jobs, ensuring equal job opportunities for all.
- Mandatory safety committee at each site for on-site safety monitoring, and safe handling of hazardous chemicals ensured.
12. Textile Workers:
- All Migrant Workers (direct, contractor-based and self-migrated) to get Equal wages, welfare benefits and PDS portability benefits.
- Workers can raise claims for upto 3 years for settlement of pending dues, facilitating flexible and easy resolution.
- Provision for double wages for workers for overtime work. Hence statement II is correct.
13. IT & ITES Workers:
- Release of Salary mandatory by the 7th of every month. Transparency and trust ensured. Hence statement III is correct.
- Equal pay for equal work made mandatory, women’s participation is strengthened.
- Facility for women to work night shifts in all establishments – women to get opportunity to earn higher wages.
- Timely resolution of harassment, discrimination, and wage related disputes.
- Guarantee of social security benefits through fixed-term employment and mandatory appointment letters.
14. Dock Workers:
- All Dock workers to get formal recognition, Legal Protection.
- Mandatory appointment letters to guarantee social security benefits.
- Provident fund, pension, and insurance benefits ensured for all, whethercontract or temporary dock workers.
- Employer-funded annual health check-ups mandatory.
- Dock workers to get mandatory medical facilities, first aid, sanitary and washing areas, etc., to ensure decent work conditions and safety.
15. Export Sector Workers:
- Export sector fixed term workers to receive gratuity, provident fund (PF), and other social security benefits.
- Every worker to have the option of availing annual leaves after 180 days of work in a year.
- Every worker to get right to timely wage payment and no unauthorized wage deductions and no wage ceiling restrictions.
- Women allowed to work in night shifts with consent, ensuring opportunity to earn higher income.
- Safety and welfare measures include mandatory written consent, double wages for overtime, safe transportation, CCTV surveillance, and security arrangements.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2192463
3. Under the Constitution, the Governor is mandatorily required to reserve a State Bill for the consideration of the President if the Bill:
1. Undermines powers of High Courts.
2. Conflicts with central laws on subjects in the Concurrent List.
3. Affects the position of the Union in certain matters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Timelines Can’t Be Fixed For Governors/President For Bills’ Assent; No Concept Of ‘Deemed Assent’ : Supreme Court In Presidential Reference
Assent to Bills: President & Governor (Articles 200 & 201)
Governor’s Options (Article 200): When a State Bill is presented, the Governor may:
- Give assent
- Withhold assent
- Return the Bill (if not a Money Bill) for reconsideration.
- Reserve the Bill for the President (mandatory in certain cases like derogation of High Court powers; optional in others).
President’s Options (Article 201) for a Bill reserved by the Governor:
- Give assent
- Withhold assent
- Return the Bill (if not a Money Bill) for reconsideration of the State Legislature.
- Static Principles Related to Assent
Discretion of the Governor
- The Governor has constitutional discretion (especially in reserving Bills for the President).
- But discretion must be exercised not arbitrarily, but as per constitutional norms.
Mandatory Reservation
A Bill must be reserved for the President if it:
- Undermines powers of High Courts.
- Conflicts with central laws on subjects in the Concurrent List.
- Affects the position of the Union in certain matters.
Hence all the statements are correct.
Effect of Reconsideration
- If a Bill is returned and passed again by simple majority, the Governor must give assent (cannot reject again).
- This applies to the President also when handling reserved Bills.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions in India: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions situations where the Governor of a State can act in his/her discretion. II. The President of India can, on his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration, even without it being forwarded by the Governor of the concerned State. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
Source:
4. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’ Consider the following statements:
1. Red Sanders grows extensively in the Western Ghats due to high rainfall.
2. This species prefers moist tropical evergreen conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: NBA releases ₹39.84 crore to Andhra Pradesh for Red Sanders conservation
Red Sanders:
- Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is endemic to the dry deciduous forests of the Eastern Ghats, mainly Andhra Pradesh. Hence both the statements are incorrect.
- It is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- It is listed under CITES Appendix II, making its international trade strictly regulated.
- India imposes an export ban, except through government-authorized auctions.
- Wood is valued for its deep red color (santalin pigment), durability, and cultural demand in East Asia.
- It is among India’s most smuggled forest products, driven by high black-market prices.
- AP has formed a Red Sanders Anti-Smuggling Task Force (RSASTF).
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
5. Consider the following statements with respect to G-20:
I. It is a permanent intergovernmental body with a headquarters in Geneva
II. It originally began as a meeting of finance ministers and central bank governors.
III. The 2025 summit was the first G20 Summit to be hosted by Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only
Answer: (b) II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM proposes new growth initiatives at G-20
The G20 2025 Summit:
- The G20 2025 Summit was hosted in Johannesburg, South Africa — the first G20 summit on African soil. Hence statement III is correct.
- The summit’s theme centered on “Solidarity, Equality, and Sustainability.”
- Important issues for this summit included global equity, debt sustainability for low/middle-income countries, just transition in climate finance, and reform of global governance institutions.
New growth initiatives proposed by India at G-20:
- G20 Initiative on Countering the Drug–Terror Nexus: The focus is on synthetic drugs like fentanyl, which pose a major threat to security, public health, and social stability.
- Global Traditional Knowledge Repository: It would document and share traditional wisdom (medical, ecological, cultural) from communities around the world, to preserve and propagate sustainable practices.
- G20–Africa Skills Multiplier Initiative: A “train-the-trainer” model to develop 1 million certified trainers in Africa over the next decade. These trainers would then skill millions more, boosting human capital in Africa.
- G20 Global Healthcare Response Team: Creating a G20 Global Healthcare Response Team: a pool of trained medical experts from member countries who can be rapidly deployed during health emergencies or natural disasters
G 20:
- The Group of Twenty (G20) is an international forum of major advanced and emerging economies that meets to discuss global economic, financial, developmental, and geopolitical issues.
- It is not a treaty-based organization, it is an informal forum. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- Initially, the G20 was a meeting of finance ministers and central bank governors. Hence statement II is correct.
- After the global financial crisis of 2008, the G20 was elevated to a Leaders’ Summit.
- Since then, G20 leaders (Presidents/Prime Ministers) meet annually.
- G20 members include Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, European Union.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2023) Q. Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
6. Which among the following statements are correct with respect to Guru Tegh Bahadur?
1. He was the 11th Sikh Guru, succeeding Guru Gobind Singh
2. He composed 115 hymns included in the Guru Granth Sahib, highlighting detachment, meditation, and moral courage.
3. He opposed the forced religious conversions carried out by Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: PRESIDENT OF INDIA’S MESSAGE ON THE EVE OF ‘MARTYRDOM DAY’ OF GURU TEG BAHADUR JI
Guru Tegh Bahadur
- Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji was the 9th Sikh Guru, succeeding Guru Har Krishan Ji in 1664. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- He was born in 1621 at Amritsar as the youngest son of Guru Hargobind Ji, the 6th Sikh Guru.
- His early name was Tyag Mal, later titled ‘Tegh Bahadur’ (Brave of the Sword) for his martial skills.
- He emphasized the principles of freedom of religion, human rights, and protection of the oppressed.
- Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji extensively travelled across northern India to spread Sikh teachings, including Assam, Bengal, Bihar, and the Malwa region.
- He founded the town of Anandpur Sahib (originally Chak Nanaki) in 1665.
- He composed 115 hymns included in the Guru Granth Sahib, highlighting detachment, meditation, and moral courage. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- His teachings advocate spiritual liberation through Naam Simran and living a truthful, disciplined life.
- He opposed the forced religious conversions carried out by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- He defended the religious freedom of Kashmiri Pandits who sought his protection.
- Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji was arrested under Aurangzeb’s orders and taken to Delhi.
- He was tortured and executed publicly at Chandni Chowk on 11 November 1675 for refusing to convert to Islam.
- His martyrdom is considered a defining moment in India’s religious freedom and rights history.
- Gurdwara Sis Ganj Sahib in Delhi marks the site of his martyrdom, and Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib marks his cremation place.
- His son, Guru Gobind Singh Ji, succeeded him as the 10th Sikh Guru.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2013) Q. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2193161
7. The IBSA Dialogue Forum was established primarily to:
(a) Promote South–South cooperation among developing democracies
(b) Create a free trade area in the southern hemisphere
(c) Counter NATO influence in the Indo-Pacific region
(d) Establish a common currency among its members
Answer: (a) Promote South–South cooperation among developing democracies
Explanation:
In NEWS: India-Brazil-South Africa grouping: At IBSA meet, Modi calls for unified push on terror, UNSC reform
IBSA:
- IBSA (India–Brazil–South Africa Dialogue Forum) was formed in 2003 through the adoption of the Brasilia Declaration.
- It is a trilateral cooperation initiative bringing together India, Brazil, and South Africa.
- The grouping was formed to strengthen political coordination among the three countries on global issues.
- It seeks to provide a platform for policy dialogue among countries of the Global South. Hence option (a) is correct.
IBSA: Objectives
- The primary objective of IBSA is to promote cooperation among developing countries through joint initiatives.
- IBSA aims to strengthen coordination on global issues, including UN reforms, security, trade, and development.
- It works to amplify the voice of the Global South in international governance structures.
- The forum intends to promote inclusive development, particularly through programmes funded by the IBSA Fund for Poverty and Hunger Alleviation.
- IBSA seeks to enhance sectoral cooperation in areas such as science & technology, education, agriculture, energy, and health.
- IBSA strives to promote democracy, multilateralism, and respect for international law.
- The grouping also aims to facilitate trade and investment flows among India, Brazil, and South Africa.
IBSA Fund:
- The IBSA Fund (India–Brazil–South Africa Facility for Poverty and Hunger Alleviation) was established in 2004.
- It is a development cooperation fund created by India, Brazil, and South Africa under the IBSA Dialogue Forum.
- The fund aims to support poverty reduction, sustainable development, and capacity-building in developing countries.
- The IBSA Fund finances small-scale, replicable, and high-impact development projects in least-developed and developing countries.
- Projects focus on sectors such as education, health, women’s empowerment, agriculture, renewable energy, and water and sanitation.
- The Fund is managed by the United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC), ensuring transparency and implementation support.
- IBSA countries contribute equally to the Fund’s financial resources.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I only |
8. In the context of coastal security, which of the following was a specific objective of Sagar Kavach-02/25?
(a) Establishing a new maritime boundary between Maharashtra and Goa
(b) Testing the efficiency of inter-agency coordination against maritime threats
(c) Conducting a scientific survey of the western coastline
(d) Enhancing fisheries regulation along the Konkan coast
Answer: (b) Testing the efficiency of inter-agency coordination against maritime threats
Explanation:
In NEWS: ICG conducts two-day coastal security exercise Sagar Kavach along Maharashtra & Goa coastline
Sagar Kavach-02/25:
- Sagar Kavach-02/25 was conducted along the Maharashtra and Goa coastline on 19–20 November 2025.
- The Indian Coast Guard led the 2-day coastal security exercise with participation from multiple central and state agencies.
- The exercise aimed to assess preparedness against threats posed by Anti-National Elements (ANEs) targeting coastal and offshore assets.
- It tested the efficiency of coordination among security stakeholders under the multi-agency coastal security mechanism. Hence option (b) is correct.
- More than 6,000 personnel and over 115 assets were deployed during the exercise.
- Assets included ICG ships, Dornier aircraft, Chetak helicopters, Air Cushion Vehicles, Marine Police boats, Customs vessels, and CISF craft.
- A total of 19 central agencies and 13 state agencies participated in the exercise.
- One major port and 21 minor ports also took part in coast-based drills and response activities.
- The exercise validated both sea-based and shore-based responses to simulated maritime security threats.
- Sagar Kavach-02/25 aimed to strengthen the multi-layered coastal security network on India’s western coast.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2192653
9. The world’s first floating nuclear-resistant artificial island is being developed by:
(a) United States
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer: (c) China
Explanation:
In NEWS: China’s Nuclear-Resistant Floating Artificial Island
Nuclear-Resistant Floating Artificial Island:
- China is developing a floating artificial island that can survive a nuclear attack.
Hence option (c) is correct.
- It is not fixed to the seabed; it can move from one place to another.
- Made with strong, radiation-resistant materials.
- Designed to withstand blast waves, heat, and EMP effects of nuclear weapons.
- Has underground-style shelters and backup systems to keep working after an attack.
- Can be used as a military base — for radars, drones, missiles, and surveillance.
- Can also be shown as a civilian platform (weather monitoring, research).
- Helps China increase its presence and power in the Indo-Pacific and South China Sea.
- Harder to target because it can move, unlike China’s fixed islands.
- Raises security concerns for India and other neighbouring countries.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (a) Japan (b) Russia (c) The United Kingdom (d) The United States of America |
10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? (2023)
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833
Explanation:
Charter Act of 1833:
- The Charter Act of 1833 renewed the East India Company’s charter.
- It designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, giving him superintendence over all British territories in India. Hence option (d) is correct.
- It centralized legislative powers, allowing the Governor-General and his council to make laws for the whole of British India.
- The territorial powers of Madras and Bombay Presidencies were placed under the superintendence of the Governor-General of India.
- The Act ended the East India Company’s monopoly of trade, except in tea and trade with China.
- It laid the foundation for open competition in civil services (though implemented later).
- The Act allowed for the appointment of law commissioners to codify and reform Indian laws.
- It marked a shift from commercial to administrative functions for the East India Company.
- The Act was significant for centralizing administration and modernizing governance in India.