1. With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements:
1. The constitution of India under the tenth schedule defines defamation as any spoken or written words, signs, or representations that harm a person’s reputation.
2. The constitution of India allows reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression in the interests of defamation, public order, sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Many democratic countries like India have decriminalized defamation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Penalty in proportion: On growing use of criminal defamation proceedings
Criminal Defamation in India
- Defamation means harming the reputation of a person by words (spoken/written), signs, or visible representations.
- It can be civil (compensation under law of torts) or criminal (punishable under IPC)
Constitutional Angle:
- Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression.
- Article 19(2) allows reasonable restrictions in the interests of defamation, public order, sovereignty and integrity of India, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Legal Provisions:
- Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC): Defines criminal defamation as any spoken or written words, signs, or representations that harm a person’s reputation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Section 500 of IPC: Punishment – imprisonment up to 2 years, fine, or both.
- Exceptions include statements made in good faith for public good, opinions about public servants, conduct of public questions, etc.
Supreme Court Stand:
- In Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016): SC upheld the constitutional validity of Sections 499–500 IPC.
- The court held that the right to reputation is part of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), hence a reasonable restriction on free speech.
Arguments in Favour:
- Protects individuals from malicious attacks.
- Safeguards reputation, which is a facet of dignity.
- Acts as a deterrent against misuse of freedom of speech.
Arguments Against:
- Criminalization has a chilling effect on free speech.
- Used as a tool to harass journalists, critics, and opposition leaders.
- Civil remedies (compensation) are sufficient without criminal liability.
Global Practice:
- Many democracies (e.g., UK, USA) have decriminalized defamation, treating it as a civil wrong.
- India still retains criminal provisions. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only |
2. India’s ranking in the ‘Global Innovation Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) World Intellectual Property Organization
(c) Global Innovation Policy Center
(d) World Trade Organization
Answer: (b) World Intellectual Property Organization
Explanation:
In NEWS: India will be among top 10 countries on Global Innovation Index in next 3 years: Amit Shah
Global Innovation Index (GII):
- It is developed by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) in collaboration with Cornell University and INSEAD. Hence option (b) is correct.
- The Index ranks countries based on their innovation capabilities and performance, helping policymakers and businesses track progress and make informed decisions.
The GII uses 80+ indicators across 7 pillars:
Innovation Inputs:
- Institutions – Political stability, government effectiveness, regulatory quality
- Human capital & research – Education, R&D investments
- Infrastructure – ICT, energy, transport
- Market sophistication – Credit, investment, trade
- Business sophistication – Knowledge workers, R&D linkages
Innovation Outputs:
- Knowledge & technology outputs – Patents, high-tech exports
- Creative outputs – Trademarks, designs, media content
India’s Performance:
- Rank in 2015: 91
- Rank in 2025: 38 (as per Amit Shah’s statement)
- Target: Top 10 in 3 years
- India leads among lower-middle-income economies and is a global leader in ICT services exports, startups, and R&D in select sectors.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) (b) World Economic Forum (c) World Bank (d) World Trade Organization (WTO) |
https://www.wipo.int/gii-ranking/en/
3. Which of the following best describes the H-1B Visa, often seen in the news?
(a) A permanent residency visa issued by the U.S. for skilled migrants
(b) A non-immigrant work visa for specialty occupations in the U.S.
(c) A student visa for higher education in the U.S.
(d) A business visa for entrepreneurs in the U.S.
Answer: (b) A non-immigrant work visa for specialty occupations in the U.S.
Explanation:
In NEWS:
H-1B Visa:
- The H-1B visa is a non-immigrant work visa issued by the United States. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It allows U.S. companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations requiring theoretical or technical expertise (e.g., IT, finance, engineering, medicine).
- The initial validity is 3 years, extendable up to 6 years under normal conditions.
- It is employer-sponsored – meaning the employer applies on behalf of the foreign worker.
- India is the largest beneficiary of H-1B visas, with a major share going to Indian IT professionals.
- Criticism includes concerns of outsourcing, wage suppression, and job displacement for U.S. workers.
- Recent U.S. policy reforms often propose tightening H-1B norms to protect American jobs and ensure fair wages.
4.With reference to the ‘National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025’ consider the following statements:
I. The National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 is launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
II. It aims to promote exploration, research, development, and deployment of geothermal energy in India.
III. It also encourages 100% FDI, Viability Gap Funding (VGF), and tax incentives for geothermal projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
In NEWS:
National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025:
- The National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 has been launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Hence statement I is correct.
- The policy aims to promote exploration, research, development, and deployment of geothermal energy in India. Hence statement II is correct.
- It seeks to diversify India’s renewable energy mix and support the country’s commitment to achieve Net-Zero by 2070.
- The estimated geothermal potential in India is about 10.6 GW, as identified by the Geological Survey of India (GSI).
- The GSI has mapped 381 hot springs in the country, with surface temperatures ranging between 35°C to 89°C.
- The major geothermal provinces in India include:
- Himalayan Geothermal Province (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh, J&K, Arunachal Pradesh)
- Cambay Graben (Gujarat – especially using abandoned oil wells)
- Andaman & Nicobar Islands
- The policy encourages 100% FDI, Viability Gap Funding (VGF), and tax incentives for geothermal projects. Hence statement III is correct.
- It promotes local R&D and innovation to reduce high costs associated with drilling and reservoir management.
- Challenges include:
- High upfront capital cost
- Exploration risk and site specificity
- Lack of advanced technology and expertise
- Implementation requires close coordination among MNRE, State Governments, Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, and local authorities.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2019) Q. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? (a) Extraction of rare earth elements (b) Natural gas extraction technologies (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles (d) Waste-to-energy technologies |
5. Which among the following statements are correct with respect to the “International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor”?
1. It is the world’s largest experimental fusion reactor.
2. It uses thorium in place of uranium for power generation.
3. The nuclear fusion reaction is a carbon-free energy source.
4. India is one of the full members of the ITER project
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: IPR Gandhinagar proposes roadmap for India’s fusion power plans
ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor)
- World’s largest experimental tokamak (fusion reactor) under construction at Cadarache, France. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Objective: To demonstrate the feasibility of nuclear fusion as a large-scale, carbon-free energy source. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Seeks to produce 10 times more energy output than input (500 MW output from 50 MW input).
- ITER uses deuterium + tritium fusion. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
India’s Participation
- India is one of the 7 full members: EU, USA, Russia, Japan, China, South Korea, and India. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- India contributes about 9% of ITER’s construction cost (in-kind and in-cash).
- The Institute for Plasma Research (IPR), Gandhinagar is India’s nodal agency.
India’s Key Contributions
- Fabrication of cryostat (the world’s largest stainless-steel vacuum chamber).
- Development of in-vessel shielding, cooling water systems, cryogenic systems.
- Supply of diagnostic equipment and advanced materials.
Strategic Importance for India
- Access to frontline fusion technology and global research collaborations.
- Builds capacity in superconducting magnets, cryogenics, materials science, and plasma research.
- Supports India’s long-term plan for indigenous devices like SST-1, ADITYA-U, and proposed SST-Bharat.
Challenges
- Fusion requires extreme conditions: plasma temp ~150 million °C, superconducting magnets, tritium breeding.
- High cost, long gestation period, and complex international collaboration.
Future Outlook
- ITER is expected to begin operations around 2035.
- India’s parallel roadmap envisions building fusion-fission hybrid reactors and a DEMO reactor (~250 MWe) for eventual commercialization.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage of India? (a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation. (b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation (c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation (d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation |
6. Which among the following statements is not true with respect to the “Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission (TN-SHORE)”?
(a) It is a flagship program launched to restore, protect, and sustainably manage the state’s coastal ecosystems by promoting the Blue Economy.
(b) It aims to establish conservation centers for Sea turtles and dugongs.
(c) It is being funded by the International Monetary Fund.
(d) It spans 14 coastal districts of Tamil Nadu, covering approximately 1,076 km of coastline.
Answer: (c) It is being funded by the International Monetary Fund.
Explanation:
In NEWS: World Bank to fund T.N. village councils for mangrove plantation
Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission (TN-SHORE)
- TN-SHORE (Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission) is a flagship program launched to restore, protect, and sustainably manage the state’s coastal ecosystems while promoting the Blue Economy.
- Budget & Funding: The mission has a total outlay of ₹1,675 crore over five years, with the World Bank contributing ₹1,172.5 crore and the state government providing ₹502.5 crore. Hence option (c) is incorrect.
- Coverage: It spans 14 coastal districts of Tamil Nadu, covering approximately 1,076 km of coastline.
Objectives:
- Biodiversity restoration: Protect and enhance mangroves, coral reefs, seagrass beds, and salt marshes.
- Coastal protection: Control erosion, strengthen natural barriers, and improve climate resilience.
- Livelihood support: Empower local coastal communities through sustainable resource management.
- Pollution control: Reduce marine plastic waste and other pollutants.
Key Initiatives:
- Reviving coral reefs in Gulf of Mannar.
- Establishing botanical gardens in collaboration with Kew Gardens, UK.
- Sea turtle and dugong conservation centers.
- Restoration of degraded coastal areas like Ennore Creek.
Governance & Implementation:
- Managed by a high-powered steering committee including state department secretaries, forest officials, and a Chief Mission Director.
- Emphasizes community participation, with Village Mangrove Councils overseeing mangrove restoration and local procurement.
Blue Carbon & Sustainability:
- Establishment of a Tamil Nadu Blue Carbon Agency to monitor carbon sequestration from mangroves, seagrass, and salt marshes.
- Promotes the Blue Economy by balancing ecological restoration with sustainable economic growth.
Targets:
- For 2025-26, the mission plans to restore ~700 hectares of degraded mangroves and plant ~300 hectares of new mangroves.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the (a) Asian Development Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (c) United Nations Environment Programme (d) World Bank |
7. Lactifluus khasianus, sometimes seen in the news, is
(a) A newly identified butterfly species in the Eastern Himalayas
(b) A newly identified edible mushroom species in Northeastern states
(c) An invasive species causing threat to native plants in western ghats
(d) A fungal species used primarily in traditional medicine for curing skin diseases
Answer: (b) A newly identified edible mushroom species in Northeastern states
Explanation:
In NEWS: New Edible Mushroom Species Discovered In Meghalaya Forests
Lactifluus khasianus:
- Lactifluus khasianus is a recently identified edible mushroom species discovered in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, India. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Locally, it is known as “Tit iongnah” by the Khasi tribal communities, who have consumed it for generations.
- It belongs to the genus Lactifluus, section Gerardii, and grows at an altitude of around 1,600 meters.
- The species forms ectomycorrhizal associations with Khasi pine (Pinus kesiya), aiding nutrient cycles and forest health.
- Morphologically, it is characterized by a chocolate-brown cap and larger cystidia compared to related species.
- The mushroom is harvested during the monsoon season and is an important source of protein and micronutrients for local communities.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.gktoday.in/new-edible-mushroom-species-discovered-in-meghalaya-forests/
8. Consider the following statements with respect to the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture:
I. It is a legally binding international agreement adopted by the FAO in 2001.
II. The treaty allows member countries to share seeds and plant materials for research and breeding.
III. India is not one among the contracting parties to the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a) I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: Global farmers’ alliance warns against seed treaty reforms that threaten farmers’ rights
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA):
- The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA), also known as the Seed Treaty, is a legally binding international agreement adopted by the FAO in 2001 and in force since 2004. Hence statement I is correct.
- As of now, the treaty has over 140 contracting parties, including India. Hence statement III is incorrect.
- The treaty establishes a Multilateral System of Access and Benefit-Sharing for many important crops, facilitating access to these resources for research and breeding under conditions set by the Standard Material Transfer Agreement (SMTA).
Key Objectives:
- Conservation and Sustainable Use: To maintain and ensure the long-term availability of plant genetic resources for food and agriculture, crucial for future food security.
- Access and Benefit-Sharing: To create a global system for exchanging genetic material for research, breeding, and training, with benefits shared with countries of origin.
- Farmer’s Rights: To formally recognize the crucial contributions of farmers and indigenous people as custodians of crop diversity.
Multilateral System (MLS):
A key feature of the treaty is the Multilateral System of Access and Benefit-Sharing, which:
- Covers 64 key food and forage crops.
- Allows member countries to share seeds and plant materials for research and breeding. Hence statement II is correct.
- Requires recipients to share benefits (e.g., royalties or technologies) if they commercialize products using those resources.
Farmers’ Rights:
The treaty also affirms:
- Protection of traditional knowledge.
- Right to save, use, exchange, and sell farm-saved seeds.
- Participation in decision-making on genetic resources.
However, implementation of these rights varies widely by country.
Farmers’ Concerns on Seed Treaty Reforms:
- Expansion of Crop Coverage: Proposal to include all plant genetic resources (beyond current 64 crops) in the Multilateral System may risk exploitation of traditional and local seed varieties.
- Weak Protection of Farmers’ Rights: Draft reforms fail to secure farmers’ rights to save, use, exchange, and sell their own seeds.
- Biopiracy Risks: Concern over corporations patenting traditional seeds without fair compensation to the communities that developed them.
- Unfair Benefit-Sharing: Despite widespread seed use under the treaty, benefits rarely reach the original farmers or countries contributing genetic resources.
- Lack of Transparency: Unclear who is accessing seeds, for what purpose, and how benefits are being shared or tracked.
- Threat to National Seed Sovereignty: Local control over seeds could weaken if genetic materials become globally accessible without safeguards.
- Exclusion from Decision-Making: Farmers and local groups claim negotiations favor corporate interests, with minimal farmer participation.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. Consider the following international agreements 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 3. The World Heritage Convention Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
9. Which of the following factors help freshwater persist beneath the seafloor in offshore aquifers?
1. Density contrast between freshwater and seawater
2. Presence of impermeable cap rocks
3. Continuous recharge from ocean water
4. Original recharge during past glacial periods
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Scientists have confirmed a large freshwater aquifer beneath the sea floor off the northeast U.S. coast (New Jersey to Maine).: What are offshore aquifers and why are they significant?
Offshore aquifers:
- Offshore aquifers are like terrestrial aquifers in that they are porous rocks or sediments saturated with freshwater—but located under the seafloor.
- It is estimated that offshore aquifers might extend up to ~ 90 km offshore, and that globally they may contain about 1 million cubic kilometres of freshwater—roughly 10% of all terrestrial fresh groundwater.
How did that freshwater get there? There are two main hypotheses:
- During past ice ages (when sea levels were lower), those areas now underwater were dry land, so rainfall could infiltrate and recharge aquifers that now lie under the sea.
- There may be connections with onshore aquifers that continue to feed freshwater into the offshore portions.
- A “cap rock” or impermeable clay-rich sediment layer may prevent mixing of freshwater and saltwater, keeping the freshwater “locked in.” Hence 2 is correct.
- Extracting water from these offshore aquifers is expensive and difficult. One estimate for such a drilling effort cost ~$25 million.
- Other challenges include designing wells under the seafloor, transporting the water to land, avoiding saltwater intrusion (i.e. mixing with seawater), ecological impacts, and disputes over ownership / rights among coastal communities. Hence 3 is incorrect.
How Freshwater Can Persist Under the Sea:
- Density contrast: Freshwater is less dense than saltwater. If a low-permeability “cap” (such as clay layers) exists, it can prevent upward mixing or infiltration of seawater into the freshwater zone. Hence 1 is correct.
- Original recharge / relic water: Much of the water might be “relict”—i.e. it moved in when the area was above sea level (during glacial / low sea-level periods) and remained trapped as sea levels rose. Hence 4 is correct.
- Geological structure: Porous sediments or rocks, faulting, fractures, and connectivity (or lack thereof) influence how water moves or is confined.
- Submarine groundwater discharge: Fresh or brackish groundwater may slowly flow from land into the sea (i.e. submarine groundwater discharge), though this is usually closer to shore and in shallower sediments.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of the effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct |
10. Consider the following:
1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (b) Only three
EXPLANATION:
Parasitoids are organisms whose larvae develop on or inside a host, eventually killing it. Typically, parasitoid species are primarily found among insects rather than non-insects like centipedes.
- Carabid beetles – Generally predators; not known as common hosts for parasitoids
- Centipedes – Arthropods but predatory; not common hosts
- Flies – Many flies serve as hosts (e.g., Tachinid flies parasitized by other parasitoids)
- Termites – Some wasp parasitoids target termite colonies
- Wasps – Many wasps themselves are parasitoids, and some wasps are hosts for other parasitoids