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Daily Current Affairs – 23-09-2025

KMA Team September 23, 2025

1. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: When inflation is low, nominal GDP growth slows down and tax revenue collections rise at a slower pace.

Statement II: Nominal GDP is the total market value of a country’s final goods and services produced within a specific period, calculated using current prices without adjusting for inflation or deflation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I  

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct   

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

In NEWS: Why low inflation is a problem for government’s finances

Low Inflation & Government Budget Targets

  • Nominal GDP is the sum of Real GDP and Inflation (price rise). It represents the value of goods and services produced in the economy at current prices. Hence statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1.
  • Government finances depend on the growth of nominal GDP, since tax collections and fiscal calculations are made in money terms and not in terms of physical output.
  • In August 2025, inflation indicators were very low:
    • Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation stood at around 2.07%.
    • Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation was even lower, at around 0.52%.

Low Inflation is a Problem due to the following reasons:

Revenue Shortfall:

  • When inflation is low, nominal GDP growth slows down. As a result, tax revenue collections rise at a slower pace. For example, between April and July 2025, gross tax revenue increased by only about 1% year-on-year, while net tax revenue actually declined by nearly 7.5%. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Fiscal Deficit and Debt Ratios:

  • In the Union Budget for 2025-26, the government projected nominal GDP growth of about 10.1%. If nominal GDP turns out to be lower due to subdued inflation, the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio and debt-to-GDP ratio automatically worsen, even if the expenditure remains the same. The fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 is set at 4.4% of GDP.

Base Effect:

  • The upward revision in the GDP estimate for 2024-25 makes the nominal growth target for 2025-26 somewhat easier to achieve in absolute terms. However, the weakness in inflation still reduces the pace of expansion in nominal GDP.

When is Low Inflation Good vs. Bad

  • Low inflation can be beneficial when it arises from productivity gains, improved supply-side efficiency, or a bumper agricultural harvest. In such cases, the economy enjoys both stable prices and higher real output.
  • Low inflation can be harmful when it reflects weak demand, sluggish private investment, or corporate reluctance to undertake capital expenditure. In such scenarios, low price growth indicates economic slackness rather than efficiency.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2015)

Q. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither1 nor 2

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/low-inflation-problem-government-budget-targets-10256765/

2. Consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory organisation constituted under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

2. The SAMEER App 2.0 is a mobile application launched by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to provide real-time, location-based updates on the National Air Quality Index (AQI).

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 Only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Union Environment Minister Shri Bhupender Yadav presides over 51st Foundation Day of the Central Pollution Control Board in New Delhi.

  • A technical report on the “Classification of Polluted River Stretches, 2025” was released, based on national water quality monitoring data.

The Central Pollution Control Board:

  • It is a statutory organisation, constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.  
  • It provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 

SAMEER App 2.0:

The SAMEER App Version 2.0 was launched, offering an updated user interface, improved citizen engagement, and features like personalized alerts and location-based services. The app will be available on Android and iOS. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Air Quality Updates:

  • The app provides hourly updates on the National Air Quality Index (AQI), helping users stay informed about the air quality in real time.
  • It offers AQI data for over 100 cities across India, ensuring that people across the country can access relevant information.

Colour-Coded AQI Representation:

The cities are represented in a colour-coded format, making it easy for users to quickly understand the air quality. Different colours correspond to different AQI levels, indicating whether the air is safe or hazardous.

Complaint Registration & Tracking:

The app allows users to file and track complaints related to various pollution sources such as:

  • Garbage dumping
    • Road dust
    • Vehicular emissions
    • Other local pollution issues.

This feature promotes citizen participation, empowering people to actively address pollution problems in their communities.

Improved Citizen Engagement:

The app fosters greater community engagement by providing a platform for citizens to contribute to environmental management, especially by reporting local pollution issues.

PYQ REFERENCE: (2018)

Q. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2169483

3. Consider the following statements with respect to the “Dadasaheb Phalke Award”:

1. It is India’s highest award to honour for the remarkable service of the Non-Governmental organizations.

2. The award is presented annually by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Actor Mohanlal dedicates Dadasaheb Phalke Award to Malayalam film industry

The Dadasaheb Phalke Award:

  • The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India’s highest honour in cinema, instituted in 1969 to commemorate the father of Indian cinema, Dhundiraj Govind Phalke. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The award is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony, administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals under the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • It is given to individuals for their outstanding lifetime contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
  • The award consists of a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion, a shawl, and a cash prize of ₹10 lakh.
  • Devika Rani was the first recipient of the award in 1969.
  • Mohanlal, the veteran Malayalam actor, was the latest recipient (2023) at the 71st National Film Awards.
  • The selection of awardees is done by a committee of eminent film industry personalities.
  • Dadasaheb Phalke directed Raja Harishchandra in 1913, regarded as the first full-length Indian feature film.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2023)

Q. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award – For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Arjuna Award – For the lifetime achievement by sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award – To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar – To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/actor-mohanlal-dedicates-dadasaheb-phalke-award-to-malayalam-film-industry/article70076532.ece

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is the number of maternal deaths per 1000 live births in a given period.

2. Puducherry is the first Union Territory to achieve zero maternal mortality in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Puducherry becomes first UT to achieve zero maternal mortality

Maternal Mortality:

  • Maternal Mortality refers to the death of a woman during pregnancy, childbirth, or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy, from causes related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management.
  • Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR): Number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births in a given period. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • According to UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.1, countries must reduce the global MMR to less than 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030.
  • Causes globally: severe bleeding, infections, unsafe abortions, hypertensive disorders (eclampsia), and obstructed labour.

Maternal Mortality in India

  • As per Sample Registration System (SRS) Special Bulletin (2018–20), India’s MMR is 97 per 100,000 live births, showing consistent decline.
  • India achieved the National Health Policy target of MMR <100 by 2020.
  • Puducherry is the first Union Territory to achieve zero maternal mortality in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • States with lowest MMR: Kerala (19), Maharashtra (33), Telangana (43).
  • States with highest MMR: Assam (195), Madhya Pradesh (173), Uttar Pradesh (167).

Government Initiatives

  1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): Cash incentive scheme under the National Health Mission to promote institutional deliveries.
  2. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK): Free institutional delivery, free drugs, diagnostics, diet, and transport for pregnant women.
  3. LaQshya Programme: Launched in 2017, aims at improving quality of care in labour rooms and maternity operation theatres.
  4. POSHAN Abhiyaan: Addresses maternal and child malnutrition.
  5. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA): Free antenatal check-ups on the 9th of every month for pregnant women.
  6. Midwifery Services Initiative (2018): Strengthening skilled birth attendants.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2024)

Q. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 People in the Population in a year.
(b) the number of children born to couple in their lifetime in a given population.
(c) the birth rate minus death rate.
(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2025/Sep/18/puducherry-becomes-first-ut-to-achieve-zero-maternal-mortality#:~:text=Chief%20Minister%20N%20Rangasamy%2C%20in,major%20milestone%20in%20women’s%20healthcare.

5. Which of the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is/are correct?

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is a constitutional bodyestablished by inserting article 323A under the 42nd Amendment (1976).

2. It is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates disputes related to the services of public servants.

3. The order of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) cannot be challenged in any court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: 10th All India Conference of Central Administrative Tribunal to be inaugurated by Chief Justice of India on 20th September at Bharat Mandapam.

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

  • The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) plays a crucial role in resolving disputes related to the services of public servants in India.
  • It is a statutory body established by an act of Parliament under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, and empowered by Article 323A of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • CAT provides an alternative to the regular judicial system for service-related matters.

Key Points:

1. Constitutional Basis:

Article 323A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976), allowing Parliament to set up administrative tribunals for resolving disputes related to public servants, both for Union and State services (with State approval). Hence statement 2 is correct.

2. CAT is empowered by Article 323A of the Indian Constitution, which was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. While it is empowered by the Constitution, it is not a “Constitutional body.

3. Structure:

CAT has its headquarters in New Delhi, with 18 additional benches across India. It has 69 members, consisting of:

  • 35 Judicial Members: These must be former High Court judges.
  • 34 Administrative Members: These members must have senior service experience, at the level of Additional Secretary or above.

4. Function:

  • CAT’s primary function is to provide timely and effective justice in cases concerning Union government employees and employees of notified Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
  • It adheres to principles of natural justice, maintaining a high disposal rate (92.9%).

5. Appeals Process:

  • If a party is dissatisfied with a CAT ruling, they can file a writ petition in a High Court under Articles 226 or 227 of the Constitution.
  • Further appeals can be made to the Supreme Court under Article 136. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2168512

6. The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) is India’s initiative with the collaboration of which among the following?

(a) World Bank

(b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(d) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

Answer: (b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation:

In NEWS: Seeds of the Future: Clean Plant Programme Gaining Momentum

The Clean Plant Programme (CPP):

  • India’s Clean Plant Program (CPP), conceptualized by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare in collaboration with the Asian Development Bank. Hence option (b) is correct.
  • It is a novel initiative aimed at ensuring healthy, disease-free planting material of key fruit crops.
  • The program seeks to enhance farmers’ productivity and profitability, ultimately boosting India’s global competitiveness.
  • Nine Clean Plant Centres (CPCs) are to be established across India, equipped with advanced tissue culture labs and diagnostic facilities.
  • The programme provides financial assistance to nurseries: ₹3 crore for large nurseries and ₹1.5 crore for medium nurseries, targeting production of 8 crore disease-free seedlings annually.
  • Target crops include fruits (mango, pomegranate, grapes, citrus, litchi, apple, berries), nuts (almond, walnut), and ornamental plants.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2015)

Q. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2169147

7. Consider the following:

1. Kakatiya Rudreshwara Temple

2. Erra Matti Dibbalu

3. Ajanta Caves

4. Varkala Cliffs

5. Maratha Military Landscapes

6. Tirumala Hills

7. Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty

Which of the above properties were included in UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 6 and 7 only

(c) 1, 3, 5 and 7 only

(d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 only

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 5 and 7 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:

  • Seven remarkable natural heritage sites from India have been included in UNESCO’s Tentative List of World Heritage Sites.
  • India now has a total of 69 sites under consideration by UNESCO, comprising 49 cultural, 17 natural, and 3 mixed heritage properties. This accomplishment reaffirms India’s unwavering commitment to preserving and promoting its extraordinary natural and cultural legacy.

Newly Added Sites in Tentative List:

Deccan Traps at Panchgani and Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra :Home to some of the best-preserved and studied lava flows in the world, these sites form part of the massive Deccan Traps and are located within the Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary—already a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Geological Heritage of St. Mary’s Island Cluster, Karnataka: Known for its rare columnar basaltic rock formations, this island cluster dates back to the Late Cretaceous period, offering a geological snapshot from around 85 million years ago.

Meghalayan Age Caves, Meghalaya: The stunning cave systems of Meghalaya, particularly the Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch, reflecting significant climate and geological transitions.

Naga Hill Ophiolite, Nagaland: A rare exposure of ophiolite rocks, these hills represent oceanic crust uplifted onto continental plates—offering deep insights into tectonic processes and mid-ocean ridge dynamics.

Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills), Andhra Pradesh: These visually striking red sand formations near Visakhapatnam showcase unique paleo-climatic and coastal geomorphological features that reveal Earth’s climatic history and dynamic evolution.

Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills, Andhra Pradesh: Featuring the Eparchaean Unconformity and the iconic Silathoranam (Natural Arch), this site holds immense geological significance, representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth’s history.

Varkala Cliffs, Kerala: The scenic cliffs along Kerala’s coastline expose the Warkalli Formation of the Mio-Pliocene age, along with natural springs and striking erosional landforms, offering both scientific and touristic value.

Hence 2, 4 and 6 are not yet added.

List of World Heritage Sites in India:

Cultural – 36

Hence option (c) 1, 3, 5 and 7 are correct.

Natural – 7

Mixed – 1

PYQ REFERENCE: (2024)

Q. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan.
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2168105

8. With reference to the ‘Chabahar port’, Consider the following statements:

I. Chabahar Port is Pakistan’s only oceanic port, providing direct access to the Indian Ocean without passing through the Strait of Hormuz.

II. It is located on the Gulf of Oman near the Arabian Sea.

III. It serves as the main entry point and transshipment hub for the INSTC (International North-South Transport Corridor), connecting the Indian Ocean to the Caspian Sea.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

In NEWS: U.S. to revoke waiver on Chabahar port sanctions

Chabahar Port:

  • Chabahar Port is a sea port in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman near the Arabian Sea. Hence statement II is correct.
  • It is Iran’s only oceanic port, providing direct access to the Indian Ocean without passing through the Strait of Hormuz. Hence statement I is incorrect.
  • The port is strategically located near Iran–Pakistan border, close to Gwadar Port (Pakistan, China-Pakistan Economic Corridor).

Strategic Significance

  • India–Iran cooperation: India is developing Chabahar Port to gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
  • It complements India’s Connect Central Asia policy and INSTC (International North-South Transport Corridor).
  • It serves as the main Iranian entry point and transshipment hub for the INSTC, connecting the Indian Ocean to the Caspian Sea. Hence statement III is correct.
  • Chabahar enhances India’s trade connectivity with Afghanistan, landlocked Central Asia, and Middle East.
  • It provides counterbalance to China’s Gwadar Port in Pakistan, which is part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).

Development & Investment

  • India, through Indian companies and lines like IRCON, MMTC, and IAFPL, is investing in port infrastructure, container terminals, and cargo handling.
  • Development agreement: India, Iran, Afghanistan signed MoU for port development and transit trade.
  • Operational since 2017 for commercial cargo.

Economic & Geopolitical Importance

  • Enables India to export goods to Afghanistan and Central Asia with lower logistics costs.
  • Strengthens India’s presence in the Indo-Pacific maritime domain.
  • Reduces dependence on Pakistan’s transit routes for Afghan trade.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2017)

Q. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-to-slap-sanctions-on-chabahar-port-operators-from-september-29/article70066959.ece

9. With reference to the history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Lothal is famous for having one of the world’s earliest known dockyards.

2. Lothal has evidence of weighing systems for commerce and trading activities.

3. The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) in India is located at Lothal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

In NEWS: PM Modi to review Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal

The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC):

  • The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being developed at Lothal, Gujarat, an Indus Valley site with the world’s earliest known dockyard. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • It is an initiative under the Sagarmala Programme, led by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  • The project aims to showcase India’s maritime heritage from Harappan times to the present through museums, galleries, and theme parks.
  • The Ministry of Culture has signed an MoU with the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways to provide artefacts and content for exhibitions.
  • Once completed, it will be among the largest maritime museums in the world, boosting India’s cultural tourism and maritime identity.

Lothal:

  • Lothal is an archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization), located in Gujarat, near the Gulf of Khambhat.
  • Excavation was carried out in 1954–1960 by S. R. Rao, a prominent Indian archaeologist.
  • Lothal was an important trading and manufacturing centre of the Indus Valley Civilization (~2400–1900 BCE).
  • It is famous for having one of the world’s earliest known dockyards, facilitating maritime trade. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The site shows evidence of bead making, gem polishing, semi-precious stone trade, and weighing systems used in commerce. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Key Features of the Site

  • Dockyard: Rectangular basin connected to a river, showing advanced maritime engineering.
  • Bead-making workshops: Indicating high-level craft and trade activities.
  • Seal impressions & weights: Evidence of trade, commerce, and administrative control.
  • Drainage & residential structures: Demonstrates planned urban layout typical of Harappan sites.
PYQ REFERENCE: (2021)

Q. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?

(a) Dholavira
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Rakhigarhi
(d) Ropar

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gujarat/pm-modi-to-review-national-maritime-heritage-complex-at-lothal/article70065658.ece

10. Consider the following:

1. Butterflies

2. Fish

3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

EXPLANATION:

Butterflies: some butterflies are poisonous or distasteful to predators.

  • Example: Monarch butterfly contain cardiac glycosides from milkweed.

Fish: several fish species are poisonous.

  • Examples: Pufferfish (tetrodotoxin), stonefish (venomous spines), lionfish (venomous spines).

Frogs: many frogs are poisonous.Examples: Poison dart frogs secrete toxins through skin.

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