1. With reference to Finance Commission Grants, consider the following statements:
1. Finance Commission Grants are released from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The Finance Commission has the power to decide the final allocation of these grants.
3. Finance Commissions can also recommend Sector-specific and Performance-based Grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Center Releases Over ₹342 Crores XV Finance Commission Grants for Rural Local Bodies in Tamil Nadu & Assam
Finance Commission Grants:
- The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
- Finance Commission grants are provided under Article 275 of the Constitution.
- They are released from the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- These grants are recommended by the Finance Commission but the Union Government decides final allocation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Revenue Deficit Grants are given to States facing post-devolution revenue shortfalls.
- Grants to Local Bodies (Rural & Urban) are recommended since the 10th Finance Commission, strengthened after the 73rd & 74th Amendments.
- Local body grants are of two types – Tied Grants (for specific services like water & sanitation) and Untied Grants (for local priorities except salaries/establishment).
- Grants for Disaster Management are allocated to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
- Finance Commissions can also recommend Sector-specific and Performance-based Grants (e.g., power reforms, agriculture, ease of doing business). Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Grants are generally released in two installments per year.
- Release of local body grants is conditional on State Finance Commissions being set up and proper auditing of accounts.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of Rs 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45 % of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2167452
2. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
In NEWS: Female cheetah to be relocated from Kuno to Gandhi Sagar on September 17
Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Mandsaur and Neemuch districts of Madhya Pradesh. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974.
- The sanctuary spreads over about 368 sq km.
- It lies along the Chambal River and around the Gandhi Sagar Dam.
- The terrain consists of dry deciduous forests, hills, valleys, and river ravines.
- Major vegetation includes teak, kardhai, salai, tendu, khair, palash, etc.
- Common fauna include chinkara, nilgai, sambar, wild boar, leopards, and several bird species.
- It is an important site for migratory water birds in winter.
- The Gandhi Sagar reservoir enriches the region’s aquatic biodiversity.
- The sanctuary is part of the proposed Chambal–Gandhi Sagar Tiger Reserve.
- It is promoted as a site for eco-tourism and birdwatching in Madhya Pradesh.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (a) Corbett National Park (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Sariska National Park |
3. Consider the following statements with respect to PM Vishwakarma scheme:
I. PM Vishwakarma is a central government scheme launched to support traditional artisans and craftspeople in India.
II. The scheme facilitates access to collateral‑free credit, with interest subvention.
III. Artisan/crafts‑persons below the age of 18 are also benefitted under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a) I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: Gujarat trains 1.81 lakh artisans under PM scheme in two years
PM Vishwakarma scheme:
- PM Vishwakarma is a central government scheme launched to support traditional artisans and craftspeople in India. Hence statement I is correct.
- The scheme aims to preserve and promote age-old skills passed down through generations.
- It provides financial assistance, skill training, and access to modern tools and technology.
- The scheme covers 18 traditional trades like carpenter, blacksmith, goldsmith, potter, cobbler, barber, washerman, and tailor.
Scheme Objectives and Key Features
- Provide holistic support for traditional artisans and craftspeople (Vishwakarmas) to scale up their products/services.
- Recognise artisans through certification and ID card.
- Skill upgradation: training opportunities to improve quality and relevance.
- Supply modern/better tools to enhance productivity and product quality.
- Facilitate access to collateral‑free credit, with interest subvention. Hence statement II is correct.
- Incentivise digital transactions.
- Provide marketing support: platform for branding, quality certification, market linkages, trade fairs etc.
Eligibility Criteria
- Must be an artisan/crafts‑person working with hands and tools in one of 18 traditional family‑based trades (unorganised sector, self‑employed).
- Minimum age 18 years. Hence statement III is incorrect.
- Should be engaged in that trade at the time of registration.
- Must not have taken loans under similar credit‑based schemes (Central or State govt) in the past 5 years (schemes like PMEGP, PM SVANidhi, Mudra etc).
- Only one family member (husband/wife/unmarried children) can avail benefits.
- Government employees and their family members are not eligible.
Eligible Trades under the scheme:
- Wood based: Carpenter, Boat Maker
- Iron/Metal/Stone based: Blacksmith, Locksmith, Sculptor, Armourer, etc.
- Gold/Silver based: Goldsmith
- Clay based: Potter
- Leather based: Cobbler / Footwear artisan
- Others: Tailor, Barber, Washerman, Basket/Mat/Broom Maker, Doll & Toy Maker etc.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The freedom to openly declare one’s religious beliefs and faith.
2. The freedom to perform religious rituals, ceremonies, and other outward expressions of faith.
3. The inner freedom of an individual to form their own beliefs about God or the divine.
How many of the above freedoms are permitted under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
In NEWS: Top court asks who will decide that a religious conversion is ‘deceitful’
Article 25:
- Article 25 applies to all persons, not just citizens.
Rights under the Article:
- Freedom of Conscience: Guarantees the inner freedom of an individual to form their own beliefs about God or the divine.
- Right to Profess: The freedom to openly declare one’s religious beliefs and faith.
- Right to Practice: The freedom to perform religious rituals, ceremonies, and other outward expressions of faith.
- Right to Propagate: The freedom to share one’s religious beliefs with others.
Hence option (c) is correct.
Limitations of the Right
- Public Order: The state can restrict religious practices that disturb public order.
- Health and Morality: Religious practices can be restricted if they are detrimental to public health or violate moral standards.
- Social Welfare and Reform: The state retains the power to enact laws for social welfare and reform, even if they affect religious practices.
- Opening of Hindu Temples: Laws can be made to open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all sections of Hindus, regardless of caste.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2011) Q. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
5. Hathei Chilli which received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2021 is an indigenous chilli variety cultivated in which of the following states?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Manipur
Answer: (d) Manipur
Explanation:
In NEWS: Manipur inaugurates Three-Day festival to promote GI-Tagged Hathei Chilli
Hathei Chilli:
- Hathei Chilli is an indigenous chilli variety cultivated in the Ukhrul district of Manipur. Hence option (d) is correct.
- It is mainly grown by the Tangkhul Naga tribe in and around the village of Sirarakhong.
- The chilli is famous for its vibrant red colour and aromatic, slightly sweet flavour.
- It is not extremely spicy but has a rich taste, making it ideal for pickles and chutneys.
- Hathei Chilli received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2021, recognizing its unique identity and origin.
- The annual Sirarakhong Hathei Festival is held to promote this chilli and local culture.
- It plays a key role in local livelihoods and traditional farming practices.
- Hathei Chilli is grown organically, without the use of chemical fertilizers or pesticides.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2015) Q. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma 3. Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
6. ‘2025 PN7’, recently seen in the news is an?
(a) Comet
(b) Refrigerants
(c) Asteroid
(d) Fertilizer
Answer: (c) Asteroid
Explanation:
In NEWS: Arjuna asteroid 2025 PN7 is earth’s latest quasi-satellite
Arjuna asteroid 2025 PN7:
- Asteroid 2025 PN7 is a newly identified quasi-satellite of Earth — it shares a 1:1 orbital resonance with Earth but is not gravitationally bound.
- It belongs to the Arjuna class of near-Earth objects (NEOs), characterized by orbits similar to Earth’s: low eccentricity, low inclination, and orbital period close to one Earth year.
- The asteroid is estimated to be about 19–30 metres in diameter.
- It was first observed by Pan-STARRS in Hawaii on 2 August 2025, though archival data suggests it has been following its Earth-like orbit for decades.
Orbital parameters:
- Semi-major axis ≈ 1.0030 AU
- Eccentricity ≈ 0.1075
- Inclination: low, close to Earth’s orbital plane.
- 2025 PN7 will remain a quasi-satellite for about 128 years, after which gravitational perturbations will alter its orbit, possibly shifting it into a horseshoe or Trojan-type orbit.
- During closest approaches, it can come within about 300,000 km (≈186,000 miles) of Earth, but it poses no impact threat.
- It is considered among the smallest and least stable quasi-satellites of Earth.
- The discovery improves understanding of Earth’s near-space environment and small NEOs, which are significant for planetary defense, scientific study, and potential space resource utilization.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media? (a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants (b) These are explosives in military weapons (c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles (d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion |
7. Which one of the following is not included in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of the UNESCO?
(a) Chhath festival
(b) Vedic Chanting
(c) Garba dance
(d) Mudiyettu
Answer: (a) Chhath festival
Explanation:
In NEWS: India seeks UNESCO recognition for ‘Chhath’.
- In tentative list, not yet added in the list. Hence option (a) is correct
Chhath Festival:
- Chhath is a major Hindu festival dedicated to worship of the Sun God (Surya) and Chhathi Maiya.
- It is mainly celebrated in Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Nepal.
- The festival is observed to thank the Sun for sustaining life on earth and to seek blessings for health and prosperity.
- Chhath Puja is celebrated over four days, usually in October–November, after Diwali.
- Devotees observe strict fasting, including nirjala vrat (fasting without water), and practice purity and discipline.
- Rituals include holy bathing, standing in water, and offering ‘arghya’ (water offerings) to the rising and setting sun.
- The main offerings include thekua, fruits, and other homemade delicacies placed in bamboo baskets.
- Chhath is known for its environment-friendly and community-based celebrations, often on riverbanks and ponds.
- It is one of the few Hindu festivals that worship the setting sun as well as the rising sun.
- The festival promotes family bonding, devotion, and gratitude to nature.
Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO:
- Meitei Sankirtana — ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur.
- Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans‑Himalayan Ladakh region.
- Tradition of Vedic chanting.
- Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana.
- Kutiyattam, Sanskrit theatre (Kerala).
- Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas.
- Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala.
- Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan.
- Chhau dance.
- Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jand
- Garba of Gujarat was added in 2023.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO? (a) Chhau dance (b) Durga puja (c) Garba dance (d) Kumbh mela |
8. Consider the following statements regarding India-Venezuela relations:
1. India and Venezuela established diplomatic relations in the 1950s.
2. Venezuela has historically been an important supplier of crude oil to India.
3. Recent cooperation between India and Venezuela includes collaboration on digital public infrastructure projects.
4. Both countries are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India and Venezuela have initiated a partnership to launch pilot projects in Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) across sectors such as health, education, agriculture, and digital payments.
India – Venezuela Relations:
- Diplomatic Ties: India and Venezuela have maintained diplomatic relations since 1959. India has an embassy in Caracas, and Venezuela has an embassy in New Delhi. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Trade Relations: Bilateral trade includes the exchange of crude oil and petroleum products, with Venezuela historically being one of India’s important suppliers of oil. Other trade items include pharmaceuticals, machinery, and agricultural products.
- Energy Cooperation: Venezuela is an oil-rich country and has been a significant crude oil supplier to India. Energy ties are a key pillar in bilateral relations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Recent Developments: India is expanding cooperation beyond energy, including digital public infrastructure projects, health, education, agriculture, and technology sectors. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Strategic Partnership: Both countries have expressed interest in enhancing ties through technology sharing and capacity building, particularly in areas of digital governance and public service delivery.
- Multilateral Cooperation: Both nations collaborate in forums like the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and the United Nations.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2024) Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct |
9. Consider the following statements with respect to Pacific Reach Exercise 2025:
1. Pacific Reach (XPR‑25) is a biennial multinational naval exercise hosted by the Philippines.
2. INS Nistar, India’s latest indigenously designed and built Diving Support Vessel (DSV) participated in the exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: INS Nistar Joins Multinational Exercise Pacific Reach 2025 in Singapore
Pacific Reach 2025 Exercise:
- Pacific Reach (XPR‑25) is a biennial multinational naval exercise hosted by Singapore. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It involves more than 40 countries—either as active participants or observers.
India’s Participation:
- India is sending INS Nistar, its latest indigenously designed and built Diving Support Vessel (DSV), to participate in the exercise. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Also, the Submarine Rescue Unit (East) of the Indian Navy is involved.
- INS Nistar will engage in submarine rescue drills and other intervention/rescue operations in the sea phase in the South China Sea.
Structure:
- Harbour Phase: Several activities including Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE), medical symposiums, cross-deck visits, discussions on submarine rescue systems.
- Sea Phase: Actual at‑sea rescue / intervention operations among participating navies. INS Nistar and SRU(E) will execute rescue operations with assets from other navies.
Strategic Significance:
- Demonstrates India’s capabilities in submarine rescue and deep‑sea operations.
- Helps build interoperability and cooperation with many navies, strengthening India’s profile as a maritime power.
- Offers a way for countries to share best practices, enhance readiness for maritime emergencies, and promote collective safety in contested or strategic waters like the South China Sea.
10. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II:Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is incorrect
EXPLANATION:
- Marsupials (like kangaroos, koalas, wombats, etc.) are primarily native to Australia and nearby regions like New Guinea.
- They are not naturally found in India. India has placental mammals, not marsupials. Hence statement I is correct.
- Marsupials thrive in a variety of habitats in Australia: deserts, forests, grasslands, wetlands, etc. Hence statement II is incorrect.
- Many do coexist with predators like dingoes, birds of prey, and reptiles.
Their success in Australia is more due to evolutionary isolation, lack of placental competition, and adaptive radiation, not specifically montane grasslands or predator absence.