1. Which among the following are considered as essential features of a democratic rule?
1. Hereditary head of a State
2. Separation of Powers
3. Existence of a State Religion
4. Free and Fair Elections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Is more democracy the solution to the crises within democracy?
Features of Democratic Rule
- Popular Sovereignty – Ultimate power rests with the people; the government derives authority from citizens.
- Rule of Law – Everyone, including rulers, is subject to the law; no arbitrary exercise of power.
- Free & Fair Elections – Regular, periodic elections based on universal adult suffrage.
- Majority Rule with Minority Rights – Decisions follow majority, but rights of minorities are protected.
- Fundamental Rights & Freedoms – Protection of speech, equality, association, religion, etc.
- Separation of Powers – Legislature, executive, and judiciary operate independently with checks and balances.
- Independent Judiciary – Neutral body to uphold the Constitution and resolve disputes.
- Political Pluralism – Existence of multiple parties and ideologies; right to opposition.
- Decentralisation – Distribution of power to different levels of government (federalism/local self-government).
- Accountability & Transparency – Government is answerable to the people through parliament, courts, and elections.
- Equality – Equal status and opportunity irrespective of caste, creed, gender, or class.
- Civil Society & Free Press – Vibrant media and civic organisations act as watchdogs.
Hence 2 and 3 are correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (a) A committed judiciary (b) Centralization of powers (c) Elected government (d) Separation of powers |
2. Which one of the following situations best reflects the “Foreign Capital Paradox” often talked about in the media recently with reference to India?
(a) India’s GDP growth is high but foreign capital inflows such as FDI and FPI remain subdued.
(b) India’s GDP growth declines sharply, while foreign capital inflows increase significantly.
(c) India receives higher foreign remittances from abroad, but foreign portfolio investments show negative growth.
(d) India’s trade deficit narrows, but foreign direct investment inflows decline steadily.
Answer: (a) India’s GDP growth is high but foreign capital inflows such as FDI and FPI remain subdued.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Why foreign investors are not bullish on India
Foreign Capital Paradox
The Foreign Capital Paradox describes the contrast wherein India’s economy is growing rapidly (7–8% GDP growth), but foreign capital inflows such as FDI and FPI remain subdued or even declining. Normally, faster growth should attract more foreign investment, making the trend paradoxical. Hence option (a) is correct.
Current Context
- In 2024-25, net capital flows were just $18.3 billion — the lowest since the global financial crisis of 2008-09.
- Earlier, in 2007-08, inflows touched $107.9 billion.
- Even in April–June 2025, inflows fell by over 40% year-on-year, despite GDP growth at 7.8%.
Causes of the Paradox
Shift in Investor Behaviour
Private equity & venture capital investors in e-commerce, healthcare, and green energy are now “cashing out” via IPOs or sales, instead of reinvesting.
Weak Portfolio Flows
FPIs remain cautious due to global interest rate hikes, valuation concerns, and corporate earnings risks.
Trade & Geopolitical Uncertainty
Rising trade barriers, tariff threats (e.g., by the US), and geopolitical tensions dampen investor confidence.
Domestic Factors
Issues of regulatory uncertainty, complex taxation, and delays in project clearances also add to hesitancy.
Implications
- Balance of Payments (BoP): Large merchandise trade deficits require capital inflows; weak inflows can stress BoP.
- Forex Reserves: Sustained low inflows may reduce reserve buffers.
- Rupee Stability: Pressure
- e on the rupee if current account deficits widen without matching capital inflows.
- Investment Climate: Signals risk perception despite high growth, which can deter long-term foreign investors.
Way Forward / Policy Suggestions
- Strengthen Ease of Doing Business → streamline approvals, improve contract enforcement.
- FDI Policy Reforms → open more sectors, ensure stable regulations.
- Deepen Domestic Capital Markets → reduce dependence on volatile foreign portfolio flows.
- Promote Innovation & Manufacturing (PLI, Make in India, Start-up India) → attract greenfield investments.
- Geopolitical Stability & Trade Diplomacy → build investor confidence through predictable trade policies.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in the media recently with reference to India? (a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment. (b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment. (c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India. (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India. |
3. Which of the following urban indicators are used to assess India’s progress under Sustainable Development Goal 11 (SDG 11)?
1. Proportion of slum population
2. PM 2.5 air pollution levels
3. Access to piped water
4. Availability of public transport
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: India’s progress on key urban indicators has been slow or negative. This marks persistent issues in urban living conditions, infrastructure and governance.
India’s progress in Sustainable Development Goal 11 (SDG 11):
India’s ranking in SDR 2025 improved to 99th among 167 countries, but SDG 11 (sustainable cities) remains weak.
SDG 11 major indicators in India
- Proportion of slum population.
- PM 2.5 air pollution levels.
- Access to piped water.
- Availability of public transport. Hence all are correct.
Performance
- Slum population and air pollution stagnated.
- Piped water access declined (only 65% in 2022).
- Water supply irregular, quality poor (e.g., Mumbai 5 hrs/day).
Urban Slums
- Nearly 50% slum households in non-pucca homes.
- Water supply in slums = 45 LPCD vs govt norm 135 LPCD.
- Slum dwellers pay up to 30× more for tanker water.
Vulnerabilities
- Urban poor face high pollution & climate risks (floods, landslides).
- Inadequate resilience measures increase health & income risks.
Governance Issues
- Urban development is a State subject; cities lack autonomy.
- Over half of municipal corporations cannot cover even 50% of their expenses from their own revenue.
- Smaller cities lack creditworthiness to attract private investment.
Urban Programmes
- JNNURM & Smart City Mission focus more on large cities & commercial areas.
- <20% Smart City projects address water, sanitation, health.
- PMAY-U excludes many poor due to weak creditworthiness.
- PMAY-U 2.0 offers credit risk guarantees to improve inclusivity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’. 2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Source: https://www.gktoday.in/indias-urban-sustainability-challenges-and-sdg-11-progress/
4. With reference to SAMBHAV, consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first secure mobile communication platform designed specifically for defence use.
2. It operates independently of commercial networks and supports real-time connectivity through 5G-enabled devices.
3. The system uses multi-layer encryption to prevent hostile surveillance or cyber-attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: The Indian Army deployed its indigenous secure mobile ecosystem, SAMBHAV, during Operation Sindoor, according to Chief of Army Staff Gen Upendra Dwivedi.
SAMBHAV:
- Launched in 2023 as India’s first secure mobile communication platform for defence use. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Purpose: To provide a trusted, indigenous, and cyber-resilient communication system for armed forces.
Key Features:
- Operates independently of commercial networks, ensuring security.
- 5G-enabled devices support real-time connectivity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Multi-layer encryption protects against hostile surveillance, cyber espionage, or cyber-attacks. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Core application M-Sigma allows encrypted messaging, file sharing, and multimedia exchange.
- Network-agnostic – works securely across multiple communication infrastructures without compromising data integrity.
Significance:
- Reduces dependence on foreign platforms like WhatsApp/Signal/Telegram.
- Strengthens national security, strategic autonomy, and information warfare resilience.
- Critical for modern network-centric warfare and joint-force operations.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
5. With reference to Koalas, consider the following statements:
1. They are arboreal marsupial mammals native to India.
2. They are currently listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
3. Koala Chlamydia Vaccine is the world’s first vaccine approved for a marsupial species.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Australia approves first vaccine to save koalas from chlamydia
Koala Chlamydia Vaccine (2025)
- World’s first vaccine approved in Australia to save koalas from chlamydia. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Chlamydia impact – causes blindness, infertility, death; in some populations, 50–70% infection rates.
Features
- Single dose, no booster needed
- Provides protection + reduces progression + reverses some symptoms
- Could reduce mortality by ~65%
Koala:
- Scientific Name – Phascolarctos cinereus
- Type – Arboreal, marsupial mammal (pouch-bearing).
- Distribution – Native to Australia, mainly in Queensland, New South Wales, Victoria, and South Australia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Habitat – Eucalyptus forests and woodlands.
- Diet – Specialist folivore (feeds mainly on eucalyptus leaves).
- IUCN Red List – Vulnerable (globally). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Australian Status – Listed as endangered in eastern Australia (Queensland, New South Wales, ACT) under the EPBC Act (2022).
Threats
- Habitat loss due to urbanization & deforestation
- Bushfires (e.g., 2019–20 Black Summer)
- Climate change (heat stress, drought)
- Road kills, dog attacks
- Diseases: especially chlamydia infection
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2012) Q. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species? (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane) (d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal |
6. Consider the following:
1. Face masks
2. Cement bags
3. Drip irrigation pipes
4. Insulation materials
5. Food packaging
How many of the above materials contain Polypropylene?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: (d) All the five
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurates Bioethanol Plant and lays foundation for Polypropylene Unit in Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) in Assam.
Polypropylene:
- Polypropylene is a versatile thermoplastic polymer made from the monomer propylene. It’s part of the polyolefin family and is known for:
1. High chemical resistance
2. Low density (lightweight)
3. Strength & durability
4. Easy moldability
- It’s one of the most widely used plastics in the world, including India.
- PP is recyclable (code #5 plastic), though actual recycling rates are low.
- It’s food-safe, lightweight, and moisture-resistant.
- It is durable, heat-resistant, and cheap to produce
Key Applications of Polypropylene in India:
Packaging Industry
- Food packaging: Chips, snacks, tea, sugar, grains
- Woven sacks: Cement bags, fertilizer bags, rice bags
- Flexible packaging: Films, pouches
- Containers & bottles
Household Goods
- Buckets, mugs, chairs, tables
- Storage boxes, crates, trays
- Dustbins, cloth drying stands
Automotive Industry
- Car bumpers, dashboards
- Battery casings, door panels
- Interior parts
Textile & Apparel
- Non-woven fabrics (especially for disposable items)
- Face masks
- Medical gowns
- Sanitary napkins
- Ropes, carpets, and mats
Healthcare & Medical
- Syringes, IV bottles, pill containers
- Disposable masks, gowns, and medical kits
Agriculture
- Drip irrigation pipes
- Mulch films
- Ropes, twines
- Fertilizer packaging
Construction & Infrastructure
- Pipes & fittings (especially PP-R)
- Storage tanks
- Insulation materials
Hence option (d) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements: 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2166529
7. Consider the following statements:
I. The Women’s Asia Cup 2025 was held in Hangzhou, China.
II. In the Women’s Asia Cup 2025, India won the gold medal.
III. Udita Duhan from India was awarded the best player of the tournament.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister congratulates Indian Women’s Hockey Team on Asia Cup Silver Medal
Women’s Asia Cup 2025 – Hockey:
- In the Women’s Asia Cup 2025 held in Hangzhou, China, India reached the final but lost 1–4 to the host nation, China and backed the Silver medal. Hence statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
- This silver medal is a strong show from India, demonstrating their consistency and competitiveness in Asian women’s hockey.
- However, the loss means missing out on direct qualification for the next Women’s Hockey World Cup. China’s win secured them direct entry.
- The 2025 edition featured 8 national teams from across Asia.
Individual Awards
1. Top Scorer: Zou Meirong (China) – 11 goals
2. Best Player: Udita Duhan (India). Hence statement III is correct.
Final Standings:
🥇 China – Champions (Qualified for 2026 World Cup)
🥈 India – Silver Medal
🥉 Japan – Bronze Medal
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho-Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in the men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54—36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2166616
8. The Tanzanian government recently halted soda ash mining near a lake which has been a Ramsar Site since 2001 and the only breeding ground for Lesser Flamingos in East Africa. The lake mentioned above is
(a) Lake Natron
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
Answer: (a) Lake Natron
Explanation:
In NEWS: Tanzania halts soda ash mining to save world’s Lesser Flamingos
Lake Natron and the Lesser Flamingoes:
- Lake Natron in northern Tanzania is a critical breeding ground for the Lesser Flamingos, supporting between 1.5 and 2.5 million birds each year — about 75% of the global population.
- The lake has been designated a Ramsar Site since 2001, reflecting its international ecological importance. Hence option (a) is correct.
- A proposed large‑scale soda ash mining project by Ngaresero Valley Company Ltd was halted by the Tanzanian government.
- Concerns included risks to flamingos, disruption of the fragile ecosystem, diversion of freshwater, and negative impacts on Maasai communities who rely on the lake for grazing, water and income from tourism.
- The government’s decision emphasizes sustainable development: large industrial extraction is disallowed, but small‑scale, traditional collection of soda ash at the lake’s edge is permitted.
Lesser flamingo:
- The lesser flamingo (Phoeniconaias minor) is a species of flamingo occurring in sub-Saharan Africa and western India.
- The Lesser Flamingo is the smallest species of flamingo.
- Plumage is mostly pinkish‑white, with a more extensively black bill than in greater flamingos.
- They feed primarily on Spirulina algae and other cyanobacteria that grow in highly alkaline lakes. Their bills are adapted for filtering tiny food items.
- Native to sub‑Saharan Africa and western India.
- Breed principally on Lake Natron in Tanzania. Other African breeding sites include Etosha Pan, Makgadikgadi Pan, Kamfers Dam. In South Asia, breeding occurs in certain salt pans in northwestern India.
- They lay a single egg (chalky‑white) on a mud mound; after hatching, chicks join large creches (groups) and are led by adults to freshwater sources, sometimes walking long distances.
Threats & Conservation Status:
Classified as Near Threatened by IUCN.
Threats include:
1. Loss or degradation of breeding sites.
2. Pollution (heavy metals, etc.).
3. Industrial projects (like soda ash mining) that might affect water quality or hydrology.
4. Rising water levels in East African soda lakes altering lake productivity.
| PYQ REFERENCE: Q. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (a) Lake Victoria (b) Lake Faguibine (c) Lake Oguta (d) Lake Volta |
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/tanzania-halts-soda-ash-mining-to-save-worlds-lesser-flamingos
9. With reference to Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, consider the following statements:
1. He was the chief engineer responsible for the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara dam in Karnataka.
2. He served as the Diwan of Mysore and introduced compulsory primary education in the state.
3. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna for his contributions to public administration and engineering.
4. He proposed the “Visvesvaraya Plan” in 1934 for India’s economic development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister pays tribute to Sir M. Visvesvaraya on Engineers’ Day
Contributions of Sir M. Visvesvaraya:
- Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was a renowned Indian engineer, scholar, and statesman, popularly known as the “Father of Modern Mysore.”
- He was the chief engineer responsible for the design and construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) dam in Karnataka, a major irrigation project. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Visvesvaraya introduced an innovative flood protection system for Hyderabad after the devastating Musi River floods of 1908.
- He served as the Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918, during which he implemented wide-ranging reforms in industry, education, and infrastructure. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Under his leadership, the Mysore government promoted industrialization, establishing many public sector enterprises, including the Mysore Soap Factory and Mysore Iron Works.
- He pioneered the concept of planned economic development and scientific management in Indian administration.
- Visvesvaraya was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1955 for his exceptional service to the nation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- He advocated for compulsory primary education and established technical institutions to promote engineering and scientific education.
- His birthday, 15th September, is celebrated as Engineers’ Day in India in his honor.
- Visvesvaraya’s writings and lectures inspired generations of engineers and policymakers in India.
“Visvesvaraya Plan”:
- The “Visvesvaraya Plan,” or Planned Economy for India, was a 1934 proposal by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a prominent engineer and economist, for India’s economic development. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- It advocated for democratic capitalism, a shift of labor from agriculture to industrialization, and aimed to double national income in a decade.
- Though the British government didn’t act on it, the plan “stirred an urge for national planning” and is considered the first blueprint for economic planning in India.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2166651
10. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer: (a) Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
EXPLANATION:
- The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) is located in the southern part of the Western Ghats, spreading across:
- Kerala: Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries
- Tamil Nadu: Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR). Hence option (a) is correct.