1. Under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled by an intending couple to undertake altruistic surrogacy in India?
1. The couple must be legally married.
2. The wife must be between 23–50 years of age and the husband between 26–55 years.
3. The couple must not have any living biological, adopted, or surrogate child, except a child who is physically or mentally challenged.
4. The couple must obtain eligibility certificates from the appropriate authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: SC to examine if bar on surrogacy for a second child is state intrusion in citizens’ private lives
- The Supreme Court of India has agreed to examine whether the ban on surrogacy for couples who already have one child amounts to violation of reproductive autonomy and privacy under Article 21.
- The issue arises from the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 and its 2023 Rules, which restrict altruistic surrogacy only to married Indian couples without a living child.
Altruistic Surrogacy
- Altruistic Surrogacy means a surrogacy arrangement in which the surrogate mother is not paid any monetary compensation except for medical expenses and insurance coverage during pregnancy.
- It is based on compassion or goodwill rather than commercial benefit.
Legal Framework in India:
1. Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021
- Came into force on January 25, 2022.
- Bans commercial surrogacy (where payment or reward is involved).
- Allows only altruistic surrogacy for Indian married couples who:
- Have no living biological, adopted, or surrogate child (except in cases of child with physical/mental disability).
- Are legally married (wife aged 23–50, husband aged 26–55).
- Obtain eligibility certificates from the appropriate authority. Hence all the statements are correct.
2. The surrogate mother:
- Must be a close relative of the intending couple.
- Should be a married woman having one child of her own, aged 25–35 years.
- Can act as a surrogate only once in her lifetime.
Objective:
- To prevent exploitation of poor women by banning commercial surrogacy.
- To protect the rights of the surrogate mother and the child.
- To ensure ethical and regulated reproductive practices.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2021) Q. With reference to the “Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021”, consider the following statements: 1. A pregnant woman can seek termination of pregnancy up to twenty weeks of gestation without the opinion of any registered medical practitioner. 2. The Act allows the termination of pregnancy up to twenty-four weeks for certain categories of women. 3. The law provides for the setting up of a Medical Board to decide on pregnancies beyond twenty-four weeks in case of substantial fetal abnormalities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
2. The BRICS Pay initiative, often discussed in global economic forums, primarily seeks to:
(a) To facilitate cross-border digital payments among BRICS nations using local currencies.
(b) To promote dollar-denominated settlements among BRICS members.
(c) To create a unified BRICS digital currency for trade settlements.
(d) To regulate cryptocurrency transactions within BRICS countries.
Answer: (a) To facilitate cross-border digital payments among BRICS nations using local currencies.
Explanation:
In NEWS: How BRICS is challenging SWIFT
BRICS Cross-Border Payments Initiative (BRICS Pay):
- The BRICS Cross-Border Payments Initiative (BCBPI), commonly called BRICS Pay, is a proposed mechanism to enable cross-border payments using local currencies among BRICS member countries — Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Aim: To reduce dependence on the US Dollar and SWIFT network and promote financial sovereignty among emerging economies.
Objectives
- To facilitate settlements in national currencies among BRICS nations.
- To build interoperability between the domestic payment systems of member countries (like India’s UPI, Brazil’s PIX, etc.).
- To reduce transaction costs and sanctions risks in international trade.
- To strengthen South-South financial cooperation and move toward a multipolar financial order.
Features
- Envisions a digital payments platform linking national payment systems.
- Not a common BRICS currency; rather, it is a technical framework for clearing and settlement.
- Operates through national currencies, avoiding reliance on the US dollar or euro.
- Discussions held under the BRICS Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors meetings.
Current Status
- Still in conceptual or exploratory stage; no formal launch.
- Russia and China have been key proponents.
- India supports the idea of interoperable digital payments but remains cautious about full monetary integration.
Significance for India
- Aligns with India’s UPI internationalisation goals and digital public infrastructure diplomacy.
- Promotes de-dollarisation and resilience against geopolitical financial disruptions.
- Enhances India’s role in shaping alternative global financial systems.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2017) Q. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)? (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. (b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades. (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase. (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective. |
3. The species Pilia malenadu recently seen in the news is:
(a) A newly discovered orchid from Arunachal Pradesh
(b) A new species of jumping spider from Karnataka
(c) A new amphibian species from Western Ghats
(d) A cave-dwelling fish from Meghalaya
Answer: (b) A new species of jumping spider from Karnataka
Explanation:
In NEWS: Researchers discover new species of spider in a Chikkamagaluru village, name it after ‘Malenadu’
Pilia malenadu:
- Pilia malenadu is a newly discovered species of jumping spider belonging to the family Salticidae. Hence option (b) is correct.
- It was discovered in the Malenadu region of Karnataka, part of the central Western Ghats, a UNESCO biodiversity hotspot.
- The species was described in 2025 by Indian arachnologists, marking the rediscovery of the genus Pilia after 123 years.
- The name “malenadu” refers to the hilly and rainy region of Karnataka, known for rich biodiversity and evergreen forests.
- It represents the first female specimen ever recorded for the genus Pilia.
- The spider was found on Memecylon plants, in moist evergreen forest habitats, showing micro-habitat specialization.
- The discovery underscores the ecological importance of Western Ghats, highlighting the need for species documentation and habitat conservation.
- The find contributes to India’s taxonomic diversity records and supports in-situ conservation efforts under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) framework.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2025) Q. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I only (b) I and III (c) II only (d) II and III |
4. Which of the following properties are commonly associated with Specialty Steels?
1. High corrosion resistance
2. Has both magnetic and electrical properties
3. High temperature and wear resistance
4. Lower tensile strength than mild steel
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Launch of the Third Round (PLI 1.2) of the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Specialty Steel
Specialty Steel:
- Specialty (or special) steel refers to value-added steel produced by alloying iron with elements such as chromium, nickel, cobalt, molybdenum, tungsten, manganese, and vanadium.
- These alloys give steel special properties — such as
- higher tensile strength and durability than mild steel
- magnetic and electrical properties,
- corrosion resistance,
- heat resistance, and wear resistance — making it suitable for strategic and high-end applications. Hence 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
- India became a net exporter of specialty steel under the PLI scheme’s first phase, with firms like Tata Steel, JSW, and AMNS India expanding production capacity.
- The government is exploring “Green Specialty Steel” initiatives to align with Net Zero 2070 goals.
Applications
- Aerospace & Defence – for jet engines, missiles, tanks, and naval vessels.
- Automobile industry – for gears, bearings, and structural parts.
- Power sector – for turbines and pipelines.
- Railways – for high-speed train components.
- Infrastructure – bridges, pressure vessels, and special-grade construction.
Challenges
- High import dependence for alloying elements.
- Technological gaps in processing advanced grades.
- Competition from cheap Chinese and Korean imports.
- Need for skilled manpower and R&D investment.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186129
5. With reference to ‘Mission LiFE’, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to mobilise at least 1 billion people globally to adopt sustainable lifestyles.
2. It aims to make 80% of Indian villages and urban local bodies environment-friendly by 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister shares an article on how India’s Mission LiFE is reviving time-honoured conservation practices
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment):
- Mission LiFE was announced by the Prime Minister at COP26 (Glasgow, 2021) and launched on 20 October 2022 at the Statue of Unity, Gujarat.
- The mission promotes a shift from “use-and-dispose” to “mindful and deliberate” consumption.
- It seeks to mobilise at least 1 billion people globally to adopt sustainable lifestyles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- India became the first country to include LiFE in its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement.
- Mission LiFE operates in three phases — Change in Demand (individual behaviour), Change in Supply (industry alignment), and Change in Policy (institutional framework).
- It aims to make 80% of Indian villages and urban local bodies environment-friendly by 2028. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Focus areas include reducing plastic use, conserving water, saving energy, cutting food waste, and promoting eco-friendly transport.
- It aligns with the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and India’s climate commitments.
- It represents a people-led, planet-friendly movement focusing on individual responsibility and collective climate action.
- The mission highlights India’s leadership in global climate diplomacy and sustainable lifestyle advocacy.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2016) Q. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186170
6. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Hawking Radiation” often talked about in the media ?
(a) Radiation emitted by the Sun due to nuclear fusion in its core.
(b) Emission of energy by a black hole due to quantum effects near its event horizon.
(c) X-ray emission produced when matter falls onto a neutron star.
(d) Gamma radiation emitted during supernova explosions.
Answer: (b) Emission of energy by a black hole due to quantum effects near its event horizon.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Gamma-ray bursts from black hole ‘morsels’ could expose quantum gravity
Hawking Radiation:
- Proposed by: British physicist Stephen Hawking in 1974.
- Definition: Hawking radiation is the theoretical emission of particles and energy from black holes due to quantum effects near the event horizon.
- Concept Basis: It arises from quantum fluctuations — temporary particle–antiparticle pairs that form near the black hole’s event horizon. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Normally, such pairs annihilate each other, but near a black hole, one particle falls in while the other escapes, appearing as radiation.
- This causes the black hole to lose mass and energy gradually — a process known as black hole evaporation.
- The radiation is thermal in nature and depends on the mass of the black hole — smaller black holes emit more radiation.
- Hawking radiation suggests that black holes are not entirely black, but slowly emit energy until they vanish.
- The theory combines principles of quantum mechanics, general relativity, and thermodynamics — bridging major areas of physics.
- It provides insight into the “information paradox” — whether information is lost when a black hole evaporates.
- So far, Hawking radiation has not been directly observed, but experiments attempt to simulate it using analogue systems like Bose–Einstein condensates.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media ? (a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space; (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. |
7. With reference to Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG), consider the following statements:
1. It is formed when natural gas is compressed under high pressure and high temperature subsequently.
2. It is colorless, odorless, non-toxic, and non-corrosive.
3. India is the world’s fourth-largest importer of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Asia LNG imports slip on weak China
Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG):
- Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is natural gas that has been cooled to around –162°C, converting it from a gaseous to a liquid state for ease of storage and transportation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Composition: It mainly contains methane (CH₄), with small amounts of ethane, propane, and nitrogen.
- Volume Reduction: In liquid form, natural gas volume reduces by about 600 times, making it economical to transport over long distances where pipelines are not feasible.
- Non-toxic and Non-corrosive: LNG is colorless, odorless, non-toxic, and non-corrosive. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Production Process: It is produced by purifying natural gas (removing water, CO₂, sulfur, and heavy hydrocarbons) and then liquefying it at cryogenic temperatures.
- Storage and Transport: LNG is stored in insulated cryogenic tanks and transported mainly by specialized LNG carriers (ships).
- Regasification: At receiving terminals, LNG is converted back into gas (regasified) and supplied through pipelines to consumers.
- Major Exporters: Qatar, Australia, United States, and Russia are leading LNG exporters.
- Major Importers: Japan, China, South Korea, and India are among the top LNG importers.
- Environmental Aspect: LNG burns cleaner than coal and oil, producing less CO₂, SO₂, and particulate matter, making it a transition fuel toward cleaner energy.
- In India:
- India, Asia’s fourth-largest LNG importer. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- LNG is a key part of India’s plan to increase the natural gas share in the energy mix to 15% by 2030.
- Major LNG Terminals in India:
- Dahej (Gujarat) – operated by Petronet LNG Ltd
- Hazira (Gujarat) – Shell and Total
- Kochi (Kerala) – Petronet LNG
- Ennore (Tamil Nadu) – Indian Oil Corporation
- Dabhol (Maharashtra) – GAIL
- Policy Aspect: The Indian government promotes city gas distribution (CGD) and LNG as fuel for heavy transport under its clean energy mission.
- Strategic Importance: LNG helps in energy security diversification and reduces dependence on crude oil imports.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2014) Q. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements: 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
8. With reference to the coinage of the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:
I. The coins were mainly produced using the punch-marking technique.
II. Gold, silver, and copper were the principal metals used.
III. The Varaha or Pagoda was the standard gold coin of the empire.
IV. The coins were known for their purity and wide circulation even beyond South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d), II and IV
Answer: (b) II, III and IV
Explanation:
In NEWS: Punch-marked gold coins dating back to Vijayanagara-era unearthed in Tiruvannamalai.
Coinage in the Vijayanagara period:
- The empire developed a sophisticated, die-struck coinage system. Hence statement I is incorrect.
- Coins were struck using engraved dies; each carried uniform designs and legends.
- Materials: Gold, silver, and copper. Hence statement II is correct.
- Shapes: Mostly circular or square, well-minted using dies.
- Designs: The boar (varaha) or Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle) was a common royal symbol.
- The Varaha (also called Pagoda by Europeans) was the standard gold coin. Hence statement III is correct.
- Weight: Approximately 3.4 to 3.6 grams of high-purity gold.
- Inscriptions were typically in Nagari, Kannada, or Telugu scripts.
- Some coins carried names of rulers, such as Harihara, Bukka Raya, Krishna Deva Raya, etc.
- Gold varahas (pagodas) were famous for their purity and wide circulation, even beyond South India. Hence statement IV is correct.
Notable Rulers and Their Coinage:
| Ruler | Period |
| Harihara I & Bukka Raya I (1336–1377) | Early gold and copper issues with simple deity symbols; some bilingual legends (Nagari–Kannada). |
| Deva Raya I & II (1406–1446) | Refinement of gold coinage; increased use of Lakshmi and Vishnu motifs. |
| Krishna Deva Raya (1509–1529) | Peak of numismatic art; coins show Balakrishna, Vishnu, and his own name “Sri Krishnadevaraya.” His gold pagodas became standard currency across South India. |
| Achyuta Deva Raya & successors | Introduced double-headed eagle emblem; gradual diversification of regional mints. |
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2022) Q. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to: (a) Clothing (b) Coins (c) Ornaments (d) Weapons |
9. He was the founder of Sikhism, preached the oneness of God and equality by rejecting caste, ritualism, and idol worship. Identify the spiritual reformer.
(a) Guru Nanak Dev
(b) Guru Gobind Singh
(c) Guru Angad Dev
(d) Guru Arjan Dev
Answer: (a) Guru Nanak Dev
Explanation:
In NEWS: PRESIDENT’S GREETINGS ON THE EVE OF BIRTHDAY OF GURU NANAK DEV JI
Guru Nanak:
- Guru Nanak Dev Ji (1469–1539) was the founder of Sikhism and the first of the ten Sikh Gurus.
- He was born at Talwandi (now Nankana Sahib, Pakistan) in 1469 during the reign of the Lodis.
- His father was Kalyan Chand (Mehta Kalu), an accountant; his mother was Mata Tripta.
- His spiritual teacher and lifelong companion was Bhai Mardana, a Muslim musician.
- Guru Nanak’s teachings emphasized the oneness of God, equality of all human beings, and rejection of caste distinctions, idol worship, and ritualism.
- His core message: “Ik Onkar” — “There is only one God.”
- He believed in achieving salvation through Naam Japna (meditation on God’s name), Kirat Karni (honest living), and Vand Chakna (sharing with others).
- He undertook four major Udasis (spiritual journeys) across India, Tibet, Arabia, and Sri Lanka to spread his message.
- He established the town of Kartarpur (in present-day Pakistan) in 1522, where he spent the later part of his life.
- His compositions are included in the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of the Sikhs.
- Guru Nanak promoted the idea of universal brotherhood and harmony between Hindus and Muslims.
- His teachings laid the foundation for a monotheistic and egalitarian religious order — Sikhism.
- He appointed Bhai Lehna as his successor, who became Guru Angad Dev Ji (2nd Guru).
- The birth anniversary of Guru Nanak is celebrated as Guru Nanak Jayanti or Gurpurab on the full moon day of Kartik month.
Hence option (a) is correct.
| PYQ REFERENCE: (2013) Q. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 |
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2186272
10. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- The Kharai camel, also known as the swimming camel, can swim several kilometres (up to 3 km) in seawater to reach mangrove islands. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is found mainly in the Kutch region of Gujarat.
- This camel feeds on mangrove vegetation such as Avicennia and Rhizophora species, making it uniquely adapted to coastal ecosystems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Kharai camel is domesticated and reared by local communities, especially by the Rabari and Jat pastoralists of Gujarat. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.