1. With reference to the ‘Indus Waters Treaty’, consider the following statements:
1. It was signed between India and Pakistan in 1965, mediated by the World Bank.
2. India has exclusive rights over the western rivers.
3. It established a permanent commission with one commissioner from each country.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
In NEWS: An interview on the possibilities of renegotiation of the Indus Water Treaty after the Pahalgam terror attack
Background of the Indus Waters Treaty:
- The Indus basin, with a drainage area of about 1,165,000 sq km was developed into a vast network of irrigated canals during British India, when the river system was within one political unit.
- The partition of India also meant that its waters were to be shared.
- After initial difficulties, the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) – an agreement mediated by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (World Bank) between India and Pakistan came into being.
- It insulated the Indus from political interference and, more specifically, episodes of warfare.
- It was signed in Karachi on 19 September 1960 by Indian prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani president Ayub Khan. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Features of the treaty:
- The Western Rivers: Indus, Jhelum, Chenab are allocated to Pakistan and the eastern Rivers: Ravi, Beas, Sutlej are allocated to India
- India can use the Western rivers for non-consumptive uses (e.g., irrigation, power generation, transport), but must not store or divert significant quantities.
- Pakistan has exclusive rights over the western rivers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- A Permanent Indus Commission was established with one commissioner from each country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The treaty includes regular exchanges of data, inspections, and annual meetings are held.
Dispute Resolution Mechanism:
- First: Bilateral negotiation – Permanent Indus Commission
- If unresolved: Neutral Expert – appointed by the World Bank
- Final resort: Court of Arbitration – A panel of seven judges nominated by both countries and neutral parties, facilitated by the World Bank
2. Consider the following in respect of ‘Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme’:
1. Under this scheme, the first-time employees registered with EPFO will receive one-month EPF wage up to Rs 15,000 in two installments.
2. The scheme also incentivises employers, up to Rs 3000 per month, for two years, for each additional employee with sustained employment for at least six months.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Cabinet Approves Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme
Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme:
- The scheme aims to support employment generation, enhance employability and social security across all sectors, with special focus on the manufacturing sector.
- Under the Scheme, while the first-time employees will get one month’s wage (up to Rs 15,000/-), the employers will be given incentives for a period of up to two years for generating additional employment, with extended benefits for another two years for the manufacturing sector.
- All payments to the First Time Employees under Part A of the Scheme will be made through DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer) mode using Aadhar Bridge Payment System (ABPS). Payments to the Employers under Part B will be made directly into their PAN-linked Accounts.
The Scheme consists of two parts with Par A focused on first timers and Part B focused on employers:
Part A: Incentive to First Time Employees:
- Targeting first-time employees registered with EPFO, this Part will offer one-month EPF wage up to Rs 15,000 in two installments.Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh will be eligible.
- The 1st installment will be payable after 6 months of service and the 2nd installment will be payable after 12 months of service and completion of a financial literacy programme by the employee.
- To encourage the habit of saving, a portion of the incentive will be kept in a savings instrument of deposit account for a fixed period and can be withdrawn by the employee at a later date.
Part B: Support to Employers:
- This part will cover generation of additional employment in all sectors, with a special focus on the manufacturing sector.
- The employers will get incentives in respect of employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh.
- The Government will incentivize employers, up to Rs 3000 per month, for two years, for each additional employee with sustained employment for at least six months. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- For the manufacturing sector, incentives will be extended to the 3rd and 4th years as well.
- Establishments, which are registered with EPFO, will be required to hire at least two additional employees (for employers with less than 50 employees) or five additional employees (for employers with 50 or more employees), on a sustained basis for at least six months.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2141127
3. As per the Zoological Survey of India’s Animal Discoveries-2024, which among the following states has highest species discoveries?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (a) Kerala
Explanation:
In NEWS: Zoological Survey of India’s flagship publication, Animal Discoveries-2024, documents 683 new faunal discoveries from across the country.
- Southern India continues to lead in biodiversity richness of the country as was evident from Zoological Survey of India’s flagship publication, Animal Discoveries-2024, which documents 683 new faunal discoveries from across the country, 459 of the species being new and 224 newly recorded in India.
- Among them, Kerala emerged as the top contributor with 101 discoveries (80 new species and 21 new records), followed by Karnataka (82), Arunachal Pradesh (72), Tamil Nadu (63) and Bengal (56). Hence option (a) is correct.
- In contrast, Chandigarh, Delhi, Haryana and Telangana reported the lowest number of species.
- Bhupender Yadav, Union minister of environment, forest and climate change, unveiled the publication.
4. ‘SACHET’, recently seen in the news is a/an
(a) Integrated alert system
(b) Missile defence system
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Cyber security architecture
Answer: (a) Integrated alert system
Explanation:
In NEWS: NDMA has successfully operationalized Integrated Alert System (SACHET)
SACHET:
- The SACHET system is India’s Integrated Alert System. Hence option (a) is correct.
- It is a Common Alerting Protocol based platform developed by the National Disaster Management Authority and C‑DOT, with support from multiple agencies (IMD, CWC, INCOIS, ISRO, DGRE, FSI)
- SACHET Sends geo-targeted alerts in real-time via SMS (prefix “XX‑NDMAEW”), mobile app, browser notifications, RSS/Atom feeds, and soon cell broadcast, radio, TV, and sirens.
- This system is already operational in all 36 States and Union Territories (UTs) of India and sends various disaster or emergency related alerts through SMS to mobiles of citizens affected in a particular geo-targeted area.
- This system has been extensively used by disaster management authorities to issue over 6,899 crore SMS alerts in more than 19 Indian languages during various natural disasters, weather warnings, and cyclonic events.
- It uses users’ GPS locations and subscriptions to send highly localized warnings
SACHET delivers warnings for both natural and man-made emergencies, including:
- Floods, cyclones, earthquakes, forest fires, tsunamis, landslides, avalanches
- Industrial accidents and chemical incidents
- Terror attacks, riots, pandemics, and national emergencies
Cell Broadcast technology:
- To further strengthen alert dissemination in time-critical disaster situations such as tsunamis, earthquakes, lightning strikes, and man-made emergencies like gas leaks or chemical hazards, Cell Broadcast (CB) technology is being implemented in addition to SMS.
- In the Cell Broadcast System, the alerts are sent to mobile phones in the affected area in a broadcast mode and hence the dissemination of alerts happens in near real time.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140843
5. In the context of Altermagnets, which of the following tasks are accomplished by Altermagnets?
1. Manipulate electron spins
2. Retaining data without power
3. THz-speed logic operations
4. Enhancing quantum coherence
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: Researchers have detected a striking novel behaviour in a class of magnetic material known as altermagnets
Altermagnets:
- Altermagnets are a newly discovered class of magnetic materials that enjoy the best properties of both ferromagnets and antiferromagnets.
- Altermagnets do not show any net magnetism externally, but deep inside, their electrons behave in ways that can be incredibly useful, especially for futuristic technologies like spintronics (manipulating the spin of electrons instead of their charge).
- It is found in materials like MnTe (Manganese Telluride), RuO₂ (Ruthenium Dioxide), CoNb₃S₆ and chromium antimonide (CrSb).
Applications of Altermagnets:
1. Spintronics (Spin-based Electronics):
- Manipulate electron spins for data processing and storage.
- Provide spin-polarized current like ferromagnets, without stray magnetic fields.
- Can be switched at terahertz (THz) speeds—faster than traditional ferromagnets.
2. Magnetic Random Access Memory (MRAM):
- Non-volatile memory that retains data without power.
- Energy-efficient switching and faster write speeds.
- Avoids magnetic interference with nearby bits (common problem in ferromagnetic MRAM).
3. Terahertz Electronics:
- Altermagnets operate at ultra-high frequencies, potentially enabling THz-speed logic operations.
- Could lead to ultrafast processors or signal-processing circuits for Next-gen computing, wireless communication systems beyond 6G.
4. Quantum Computing & Sensing:
- Zero net magnetization allows altermagnets to interact cleanly with quantum systems (e.g., qubits).
- Their symmetry-protected spin polarization can enhance quantum coherence and enable topological quantum states.
5. Neuromorphic Computing:
- Mimic the brain’s architecture using spin-based logic units.
- Altermagnets could be used to build low-power, high-speed synaptic elements that encode information in spin channels.
6. Magneto-Optic and Topological Devices:
Their unique spin-polarized band structure can influence optical properties (e.g., Kerr effect) without a net magnetic field.
Hence option (d) is correct.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140866
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4) provides a unique opportunity to reform financing at all levels.
2. It is held once in a decade organized by the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Union Finance Minister will address at 4th International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4) organised by United Nations
- FFD4 is a once-in-a-decade opportunity to bring development and finance partners together toward a sustainable finance architecture that delivers for people and the planet. Hence both the statements are correct.
- The Fourth International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4) provides a unique opportunity to reform financing at all levels, including to support reform of the international financial architecture and addressing financing challenges preventing the urgently needed investment push for the SDGs.
- The International Conferences on Financing for Development are the only space where leaders from all governments, along with international and regional organizations, financial and trade institutions, businesses, civil society and the UN System unite at the highest levels, fostering stronger international cooperation.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140693
7. Consider the following pairs:
Country Significance for India
1. Argentina : India’s largest trading partner in South America
2. Namibia : world’s first intercontinental translocation of a major carnivore species
3. Brazil : Bilateral cooperation in mineral resources
4. Trinidad & Tobago : Home to 40-45% of the Indian diaspora in the Caribbean
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will visit five nations in Africa and South America over the next few days.
Countries visited by the Prime Minister and their significance to India:
Ghana:
Ghana is one of West Africa’s fastest-growing economies; its relationship with India is marked by robust and expanding trade and investment. India is the largest destination for Ghanaian exports; gold accounts for more than 70% of India’s imports from Ghana.
TRINIDAD & TOBAGO:
40-45% of the Indian diaspora in the Caribbean lives in Trinidad and Tobago; both Prime Minister Kamla Persad-Bissessar and President Christine Carla Kangaloo are of Indian origin. The bilateral economic relationship has witnessed steady growth, with total trade reaching $ 341.61 million in FY 2024-25. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
ARGENTINA:
India has ongoing cooperation to enhance defence, agriculture, mining, oil and gas, energy, etc. Argentina is a major supplier of soybean and sunflower oil to India. In 2024, India was Argentina’s fifth-largest trading partner and export destination. India and Argentina have significantly advanced bilateral cooperation in the mineral resources sector, particularly in lithium, a critical input for India’s green energy transition. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
BRAZIL:
The PM will hold bilateral discussions with President Lula on broadening the Strategic Partnership in areas of mutual interest, including trade, defence, energy, space, technology, agriculture, and health. Brazil is India’s largest trading partner in South America. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
NAMIBIA:
Bilateral trade has grown from less than $3 million in 2000 to almost $600 million now. Indian companies have invested in mining, manufacturing, diamond processing and services in Namibia. Eight cheetahs from Namibia were released by the PM at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh in September 2022, the world’s first intercontinental translocation of a major carnivore species. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-indias-outreach-to-the-global-south-10098511/
8. Consider the following statements:
I. The Financial Stability Report is a biannual assessment report published by the RBI.
II. The report reviews trends in money, bond, forex, and equity markets, including volatility and external funds flow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indian economy remains a key driver of global growth: Financial Stability Report
Financial Stability Report:
- The Reserve Bank of India’s Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual assessment produced by the Sub‑Committee of the Financial Stability & Development Council (FSDC‑SC). Hence statement I is correct.
- It provides a comprehensive evaluation of risks, resilience, and stability within India’s financial system, drawing insights from RBI and other regulatory bodies (SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA, and the Finance Ministry).
Scope of the report:
- The report analyses international economic trends, financial market volatility, and systemic global risks (e.g., public debt, geopolitics, tech disruption).
- It examines implications for India’s GDP growth, inflation, fiscal and current account trajectories.
- It assesses trends in gross and net non-performing assets across public, private, and foreign banks.
- It brings out profitability & capital Ratios
- It brings out findings on deposit growth, loan-deposit gaps, and liquidity coverage measures.
- The report also analyses capital buffers, asset-quality metrics, solvency ratios, and stress-resilience of these non-bank financial entities
- The report evaluates how banks fare under baseline, medium, and severe conditions—e.g., GNPAs potentially rising to ~3% (baseline) or 5.3% (stress) by FY26
- It highlights concentrations in credit exposure, the rise in retail/unsecured lending stress, rising household and corporate leverage, and interconnected risks .
- In addition, it covers measures and initiatives by RBI and sector regulators related to macro-prudential supervision, digital currencies, and regulatory compliance.
- The report reviews trends in money, bond, forex, and equity markets, including volatility and external funds flow. Hence statement II is correct.
9. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: 30th June is declared as Hul Diwas.
Statement-II: It was on the same day in 1855 that the Santhal Rebellion against British colonial rule and oppressive landlords was launched.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prime Minister pays tribute to tribal heroes on Hul Diwas
Hul Diwas:
- Hul Diwas is commemorated every year on June 30th to honor the beginning of the Santhal Rebellion (Hul), a significant tribal uprising against British colonial rule and oppressive landlords (zamindars) in 1855. Hence both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
- It is observed mainly in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, and other tribal regions.
- Government and civil society groups pay tribute to Santhal freedom fighters.
- It Involves:
- Cultural programs
- Tribal dances and songs
- Political speeches and commemorative events
- Statue garlanding of Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu
Santhal Rebellion ( Hul Rebellion):
- The Santhal rebellion, also known as the Santhal Hul , was a major tribal uprising against British rule in India, primarily in the Rajmahal Hills region (present-day Jharkhand) between 1855 and 1856.
- The rebellion stemmed from the Santhals’ displacement from their lands and the subsequent exploitation by British authorities and their collaborators through unfair land taxes, exorbitant interest rates, and other oppressive practices.
- Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu were the prominent leaders of the rebellion, along with their brothers Chand and Bhairav, and sisters Phulo and Jhano.
- The rebellion was a response to the systematic dispossession of Santhal lands, the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement, and the exploitative practices of zamindars and moneylenders.
- The Santhals engaged in guerrilla warfare, disrupting communication lines and attacking British establishments. They also formed their own armies and fought against the British forces.
- The British, with superior weaponry and resources, eventually suppressed the rebellion, resulting in significant casualties on the Santhal side.
- It forced the British to acknowledge the grievances of the Santhals and led to the creation of the Santhal Parganas as a special administrative zone, providing some protection against exploitation.
- It also influenced the British to introduce some measures aimed at protecting tribal rights, such as the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140737
10. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means and accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only