1. Consider the following statements regarding National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission
- It is a flagship program to impart IP awareness and basic training
- It is being implemented by Intellectual Property Office
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM) achieves target of training 1 million students on Intellectual Property (IP) awareness
- National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM), launched in 2021, has achieved the target of imparting Intellectual Property (IP) awareness and basic training to 1 million students.
- The target has been achieved ahead of the deadline which was 15 August 2022.
About National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission
- NIPAM, a flagship program to impart IP awareness and basic training, was launched on 8 Dec 2021 as a part of “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav” celebrations. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The program is being implemented by Intellectual Property Office, the Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It aims to inculcate the spirit of creativity and innovation to students of higher education (classes 8 to 12) and ignite and inspire the students of college/Universities to innovate and protect their creations.
- NIPAM program further to nurture and encourage innovation and creativity, thereby contributing towards cultural and economic development of the society through a revamped manner utilizing the existing resources of the IP Office in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), AICTE, UGC etc.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1850898
2. Consider the following statements regarding Nano Urea
- It is the only Nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India
- It is developed and Patented by IFFCO
- It enhances crop productivity to the tune of 8 per cent
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Nano urea sales reach 11.2 mn bottles so far this fiscal: Mandaviya
Nano urea is now being widely accepted by farmers across the country as 1.12 crore bottles of 500 ml each have been sold so far in this fiscal
About Nano urea
- Nano urea is an innovative fertilizer developed indigenously.
- It is the only Nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Its application to crops as foliar fertilization enhances crop productivity to the tune of 8 per cent with commensurate benefits in terms of better soil, air and water, and farmers’ profitability. Hence statement 3 is correct
- Scaling up of production and sales as well as application of nano urea will also lead to a reduction in green House Gas (GHGs) emissions over a period of time.
- Nano urea (Liquid) contains 4 % nanoscale nitrogen particles. Nanoscale nitrogen particles have a small size (20-50 nm); more surface area and number of particles per unit area than conventional urea.
- IFFCO Nano Urea is a nanotechnology based revolutionary Agri-input which provides nitrogen to plants. Nano Urea is a sustainable option for farmers towards smart agriculture and combat climate change. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Nano urea helps in minimizing the environmental footprint by reducing the loss of nutrients from agriculture fields in the form of leaching and gaseous emissions which used to cause environmental pollution and climate change.
About Foliar fertilizer
- Foliar fertilizer is a fertilizer product which is designed to be applied directly to the leaves of a plant.
- A number of companies manufacture a range of foliar fertilizers, from organic products safe for use on food crops to more aggressive chemical fertilizers for ornamentals
3.Consider the following statements regarding Indian elephant
- Kerala has the highest number of elephants followed by Assam and Karnataka
- It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- It is an endangered species under the IUCN Red List
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Centre notifies India’s 31st elephant reserve in Tamil Nadu
The new reserve will be spread over an area of 1,197 square kilometres in Agasthiyamalai. This will be the 31st ER in the country after Singphan ER in Nagaland was notified in 2018.
About Indian elephant
- The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus) is found in the central and southern Western Ghats, North East India, eastern India and northern India and in some parts of southern peninsular India.
- It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES). Hence statement 2 is correct
- It is an endangered species under the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 3 is correct
- The Indian elephant is found in 16 states in the country and is showing an increasing trend across its distributional range.
- The population of the animals had become critically low in 1992.
- According to the latest elephant census conducted in 2017, the population of elephants in India has reached up to about 27,312.
- According to the 2017 census, Karnataka had the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). Hence statement 1 is incorrect
4. Consider the following statements regarding National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
- It is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- It aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Government to enumerate people who clean sewers
- The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJ&E) is now preparing to undertake a nationwide survey to enumerate all people engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks, an activity that has led to at least 351 deaths since 2017.
- Ministry officials said that the enumeration exercise, soon to be conducted across 500 AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) cities, is part of the Union government’s National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE)
About National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE)
- The NAMASTE scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the MoSJ&E. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It aims to achieve outcomes like zero fatalities in sanitation work in India, no sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter and all Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihoods.
- The Ministry has shortlisted types of machinery and core equipment required for maintenance works, and safety gear for Safai Mitras.
- The same is also available on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal for ease of their procurement by States and Urban Local Bodies.
- The Skill Development and training of Safai Mitras are being taken up with the support of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment through the National Safai Karamchari Finance Development Corporation.
5. Consider the following statements regarding National Rainfed Area Authority
- It is chaired by the Union Agriculture Minister
- It aims to provide knowledge inputs regarding the systematic up gradation and management of the country’s dry land and rainfed agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: NRAA proposes policy to accelerate growth of rainfed agriculture
- Reviving millet-based cropping systems, releasing new climate-resilient varieties, improving water use efficiency, and encouraging allied agri-activities are among several measures being proposed to accelerate the growth of rainfed agriculture in the country as per a draft policy.
- Rainfed agriculture accounts for roughly 40% of total foodgrain production.
- Rainfed agriculture produces approximately 85% of Nutri-cereals, 83% of pulses, 70% of oilseeds, and 65% of cotton.
- Rain-fed agriculture feeds two-thirds of livestock and 40% of the human population.
About National Rainfed Area Authority
- NRAA was established as per decision of Cabinet on 3rd November 2006 as an expert body of Ministry of Agriculture to provide the much needed knowledge inputs regarding systematic up-gradation and management of country’s dry land and rainfed agriculture. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The Authority is serviced by the Ministry of Agriculture and is located at Delhi. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The Authority is an advisory, policymaking and monitoring body charged with examining guidelines in various existing schemes and in the formulation of new schemes including all externally aided projects in this area.
- The NRAA has formulated common guidelines for the Watershed Development Project and is in consultation with all the States for its implementation as per instructions contained in the guidelines.
Source: TH
6. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal
- It shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
- It shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- It is required to issue a final decision on petitions or appeals within three months of their submission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Govt. lost ₹8,000 cr. due to five cases: NITI Aayog
A recent report commissioned by the NITI Aayog has estimated that five orders of the Supreme Court and the National Green Tribunal favouring larger protection for the environment had cost the government around ₹8,000 crore in revenue.
About National Green Tribunal
- The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment
- The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
- New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.
- The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct
- The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act.
These include the following:
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
- The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Source: TH
7. World Population Prospects, 2022 is released by which of the following international organisation?
- United Nations
- World Bank
- World Economic Forum
- World Trade Organization
Answer: (a) United Nations
Explanation:
In NEWS: Moving policy away from population control
- The United Nations’ World Population Prospects (WPP), 2022, forecasts India becoming the most populous country by 2023, surpassing China, with a 140 crore population.
- This is four times the population India had at the time of Independence in 1947 (34 crore).
- Now, at the third stage of the demographic transition, and experiencing a slowing growth rate due to constant low mortality and rapidly declining fertility, India has 17.5% of the world’s population. As per the latest WPP, India will reach 150 crore by 2030 and 166 crore by 2050.
- In the last seven decades, the share of the working age population has grown from 50% to 65%, resulting in a remarkable decline in the dependency ratio.
- As in the WPP 2022, India will have one of the largest workforces globally, i.e., in the next 25 years, one in five working-age group persons will be living in India.
- This working-age bulge will keep growing till the mid-2050s, and India must make use of it.
World Population Prospects (WPP)
- The Population Division of the UN has been publishing the WPP in a biennial cycle since 1951. Hence option(a) is correct
- Each revision of the WPP provides a historical time series of population indicators starting in 1950.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Atal Pension Yojana
- It aims to provide social security to workers mainly in the unorganised sector
- Currently, all Indian citizens between the age group of 18-40 years can join APY
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Income tax payers barred from enrolling in Atal Pension Yojana from Oct 1
- From October 1, income tax payers won’t be able to sign up for the government’s Atal Pension Yojana (APY) social security program. The goal, according to the finance ministry, is to better focus pension benefits to disadvantaged demographic groups.
- Under the income tax law, people having taxable income of up to ₹2.5 lakh are not required to pay income tax.
About Atal Pension Yojana
- On June 1, 2015, the government implemented APY to offer social security to workers, mostly in the unorganised sector. After turning 60, program participants receive a guaranteed minimum pension ranging from Rs 1,000 to Rs 5,000 per month, based on their contributions. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Currently, all Indian citizens between the age group of 18-40 years can join APY through bank or post office branches where one has the savings bank account. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The co-contribution of the Government of India is available for 5 years & for those who are not covered by any Statutory Social Security Scheme and are not income tax payers.
- It is administrated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
- The Scheme has been implemented comprehensively across the country covering all states and Union Territories.
- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is open to all bank account holders who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
9. Consider the following statements regarding The Ramsar Convention
- It is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
- The Montreux Record is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: India adds 11 more wetlands to its list of Ramsar sites
- India has added 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make total 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of 13 lakh 26 thousand 677 Hectare in the country in the 75th year of Independence.
- Tamil Nadu has maximum number of Ramsar sites which is 14, followed by Uttar Pradesh which has 10 numbers of Ramsar sites.
- During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2022, the country has added 49 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites.
About Ramsar Convention
- The Ramsar Convention is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.
- India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971. India signed it on 1st February 1982
- COP is the policy-making organ of the Convention which adopts decisions (Resolutions and Recommendations) to administer the work of the Convention.
- Every three years, representatives of the Contracting Parties meet as the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP)
Since then, almost 90% of UN member states have become “Contracting Parties” and committed to the Convention’s three pillars:
- Work towards the wise use of all their wetlands
- Designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands International Importance and ensure their effective management
- Cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems and shared species
The Montreux Record
- The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
- It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Hence statement 2 is correct
10. With Reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022)
- It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
- It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
- It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 3 only
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 2
Answer: (a) 3 only
Explanation:
- The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly.
- A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.
- The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).
