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GMT 04-08-2022

1. Consider the following statements regarding National Digital Livestock Mission

  1. It is a digital platform being developed jointly by Department of Animal husbandry and Dairying and National Dairy Development Board
  2. It aims to create a farmer-centric, technology-enabled ecosystem where the farmers are able to realize better income through livestock activities

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

  • Globally, we have witnessed around 9,580 instances of disease out breaks from 2000 to 2010, of which 60% diseases were zoonotic in nature
  • The incidences of disease outbreaks across the globe have been increasing at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 6%.
  • In India, annual outbreak of zoonotic diseases translates into an estimated annual loss of $12 billion to the economy

About National Digital Livestock Mission

  • NDLM, a digital platform being developed jointly by DAHD and NDDB on the foundation of the existing Information Network for Animal Productivity and Health (INAPH). Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The aim is to create a farmer-centric, technology-enabled ecosystem where the farmers are able to realize better income through livestock activities with the right information. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The bedrock of NDLM will be the unique identification of all livestock, which will be the foundation for all the state and national level programmes including domestic and international trade.
  • The farmers will be able to effortlessly access the markets, irrespective of their location or holdings through this digital platform as a wide-range of stake-holders will be connected in this ecosystem.
  • This system will also include robust animal breeding systems, nutrition, disease surveillance, disease control programmes and a traceability mechanism for animals and animal products.
  • Promote linkage between the R&D systems to the field so that best quality science is informing the implementation without delay by improving the functioning of various national and state programmes in service of the farmers
  • Better alignment between various national and state programmes, and build an architecture that enables States to create and manage their own programmes

Source: TH

2. The Access and Benefit-sharing Clearing-House is an exchanging information platform established by which one of the following?

  1. Nagoya Protocol
  2. Kyoto Protocol
  3. Bonn challenge
  4. Montreal Protocol

Answer: (a) Nagoya Protocol

Explanation:

In NEWS: Is India’s biodiversity getting exploited without benefits to communities?

India’s biodiversity authority could put minds at ease by increasing transparency. Otherwise, the future of biodiversity remains grim in the country

  • National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) shows that as much as 56.1 per cent of applications approved by the Authority under the access and benefit sharing regime since 2006 were between financial years 2020-2021 and 2021-2022.
  • The high numbers of approvals is good as this indicates that access is regulated and the rights of the people have been upheld and future benefits are likely to be shared. But the increase is also an indicator that India’s biodiversity is in demand and unless strict rules are set, it could all be lost.

Access and Benefit Sharing Clearing House (ABSCH)

  • The Access and Benefit-sharing Clearing-House (ABS Clearing-House, ABSCH) is a platform for exchanging information on access and benefit-sharing established by Article 14 of the Nagoya Protocol, as part of clearing-house mechanism under Article 18, paragraph 3 of the Convention. Hence option (a) is correct option
  • The ABS Clearing-House is a key tool for facilitating the implementation of the Nagoya Protocol by enhancing legal certainty, clarity and transparency on procedures for access and for monitoring the utilization of genetic resources along the value chain.
  • By making relevant information regarding ABS available, the ABS Clearing-House helps users access genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge, and providers fairly and equitably share in the benefits arising from their utilization.

The Nagoya Protocol

  • The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) is a 2010 supplementary agreement to the 1992 Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/is-india-s-biodiversity-getting-exploited-without-benefits-to-communities–84078

3. Consider the following statements

  1. The National Biodiversity Authority was established to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act 2002
  2. The NBA with its headquarters in Chennai
  3. Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Is India’s biodiversity getting exploited without benefits to communities?

  • India is also one of the early signatories to the Convention on Biological Diversity 1992.
  • The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the provisions of the Act through decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advising the Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources; and advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified under Sub-Section (1) of Section 37 as heritage sites and measures for the management of such heritage sites

About National Biodiversity Authority

  • The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The NBA is a Statutory Body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
  • The NBA with its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India delivers its mandate through a structure that comprises of the Authority, Secretariat, SBBs, BMCs and Expert Committees. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The National Biodiversity Authority is mandated to regulate access to biological resources and / or associated knowledge for research, bio-survey and bio-utilization, commercial utilization, obtaining Intellectual Property Rights, transfer of results of research and transfer of accessed biological resources.
  • The details of application forms for Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) of specific activities are given in the website of National Biodiversity Authority.
  • Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC). Hence statement 3 is correct

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/is-india-s-biodiversity-getting-exploited-without-benefits-to-communities–84078

4. Consider the following statements regarding Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act (1957)

  1. It is applicable to all mineral except minor minerals
  2. State Governments are not empowered to frame rules to prevent illegal mining under this act
  3. It details the process and conditions for acquiring a mining or prospecting licence in India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Trade unions in Kerala to take out protest march to Parliament on August 2

  • Ministry of Mines has invited comments/suggestions of the stakeholders viz, Central Government Ministries/Departments, States Governments and Union Territories, mining industry stake-holders, industry associations, general public, and other persons and entities concerned on the proposal to remove certain atomic minerals including beach sand minerals in Part B of the First Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (Regulation & Development) [MMDR] Act, 1957.
  • Some of these minerals are technology and energy critical (elements) having uses in the space industry, electronics, information technology and communications, energy sector, electric batteries and the nuclear industry and are critical in net zero emission commitment of India.
  • Country is dependent on imports for most of these important commodities. These minerals have high economic importance and considerable supply risk due to geo-political uncertainties.
  • As per section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 the State Governments are empowered to frame rules to prevent illegal mining and the State Governments may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make such rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act (1957)

  • The Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act (1957) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to regulate the mining sector in India.
  • It was amended in 2015 and 2016. This act forms the basic framework of mining regulation in India
  • This act is applicable to all mineral except minor minerals and atomic minerals. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  •  It details the process and conditions for acquiring a mining or prospecting licence in India. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • Mining minor minerals comes under the purview of state governments
  • For mining and prospecting in forest land, prior permission is needed from the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=236253

5. Consider the following statements regarding Park for Peace

  1. It is a special designation that may be applied to any of the three types of Transboundary Conservation Areas
  2. It is supporting long-term co-operative conservation of biodiversity, ecosystem services, and natural and cultural values across boundaries
  3. It is a part of World Bank initiative

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Peace parks as a transboundary approach to conservation

  • Conflicts over disputed borders, increasingly exacerbated by climate change, are putting some of the world’s key biodiversity hotspots at risk.
  • Even in countries that have avoided border wars, a global campaign of fence building — aimed at keeping out human migrants whose numbers are rising in an era of climate change and socio political unrest — is causing widespread damage to vulnerable natural landscapes and migratory animal species.
  • In potential conflict zones like the Himalayas, Eastern Europe, the Caucasus, and the South China Sea, this surging human march across national frontiers has already led to violence, and in some cases to open warfare.
  • Border-straddling conservation zones known as peace parks offer a more sustainable way of managing border disputes than militarization and fence building.
  • Four international peace parks sit astride that border: Peace Arch Park (Washington/British Columbia); Waterton-Glacier International Peace Park (Montana/Alberta); International Peace Garden (North Dakota/Manitoba); and Roosevelt Campobello International Park (Maine/New Brunswick).
  • Peace parks have also been proposed in disputed and transborder Himalayan areas including the Everest region (known as Qomolangma in China and Sagarmatha in Nepal); Pamir Wakhan (between Afghanistan, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan), and the Altai Mountains (between Russia, China, Mongolia and Kazakhstan).

About Peace Parks

  • A “Park for Peace” is a special designation that may be applied to any of the three types of Transboundary Conservation Areas, and is dedicated to the promotion, celebration and/or commemoration of peace and cooperation (IUCN, 2015). Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect
  • The identification and designation of Peace Parks by cooperating jurisdictions should include only those areas where the agreed management objectives explicitly recognize both a protected area and a no conflict zone.

Specific objectives of Peace Parks may include the following aspects:

  • Supporting long-term co-operative conservation of biodiversity, ecosystem services, and natural and cultural values across boundaries. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • Promoting landscape-level ecosystem management through integrated bio- regional land-use planning and management;
  • Building trust, understanding, reconciliation and co-operation between and among countries, communities, agencies, and stakeholders;
  • Preventing and/or resolving tension, including over access to natural resources;
  • Promoting the resolution of armed conflict and/or reconciliation following armed conflict;
  • Sharing biodiversity and cultural resource management skills and experience, including co-operative research and information management;
  • Promoting more efficient and effective co-operative management programmes;
  • Promoting access to, and equitable and sustainable use of natural resources, consistent with national sovereignty; and
  • Enhancing the benefits of conservation and promoting benefit-sharing across boundaries.

Source: https://india.mongabay.com/2022/07/peace-parks-as-a-transboundary-approach-to-conservation/

6. Consider the following statements regarding Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

  1. There are four schedules under the Act.
  2. It provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants only
  3. It provides for licenses for the sale, transfer, and possession of some wildlife species.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Lok Sabha clears bill on rights of forest dwellers, endangered species

The Lok Sabha passed the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2021 after hours of debate on issues related to conservation of endangered species, human-wildlife conflict and rights of forest dwellers, among others.

  • The draft legislation amends the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, for better implementation of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2021

  • The Bill also regulates wild life trade as per the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
  • The Bill prohibits any person from modifying or removing the identification mark of the specimen made by the Management authority and every person possessing live specimens of scheduled animals must obtain a registration certificate.
  • The Bill removes the present schedule for vermin species and inserts a new schedule for specimens listed for extinction under CITES.
  • The Bill seeks to empower the Centre to regulate or prohibit the import, trade, possession or proliferation of plant or animal species not native to India – invasive alien species
  • Any person can voluntarily surrender any captive animals or animal products to the Chief Wild Life Warden (an appointee of state governments). However, no compensation will be paid to the person for it and the surrendered items become the property of the state government.
  • Under the Bill, the fine for General violation is up to Rs 1,00,000 and for specially protected animals is at least Rs 25,000.
  • The Bill reduces the total number of schedules to four
  • The Bill specifies that the actions of the Chief Warden must be in accordance with the management plans for the sanctuary.

About Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

  • The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 provides for the protection of the listed species of flora and fauna and creates a network of ecologically important protected areas.
  • It is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted for protection of plants and animal species. Before 1972, India had only five designated national parks. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It provides for the appointment of wildlife advisory Board, Wildlife Warden, their powers, duties, etc.
  • It helped in becoming a par to the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES, 1976).
  • It provides for setting up of National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, etc.
  • It provides for the constitution of Central Zoo Authority.
  • It provides for trade and commerce in some wildlife species with a license for sale, possession, transfer, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • It imposes a ban on the trade or commerce in scheduled animals.
  • The Act created six schedules that gave varying degrees of protection to classes of flora and fauna. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act.
  • The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/lok-sabha-clears-bill-on-rights-of-forest-dwellers-endangered-species-101659466685312.html

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/explained-indias-wild-life-protection-act-features-shortcomings-recommended-changes/article65579474.ece

7. Consider the following statements regarding Pingali Venkayya

  1. He was served as a soldier in the British Army in South Africa during the Anglo Boer war in Africa
  2. Initially, he was designed the flag featured saffron and green colours only
  3. The flag was officially adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Architect of National Flag honoured in A.P.

  • CM inaugurates photo exhibition to mark birth anniversary of Pingali Venkayya
  • Rallies, public meetings and photo exhibitions marked the 146th birth anniversary celebrations of Pingali Venkayya, the architect of the National Flag, across Andhra Pradesh

About Pingali Venkayya

  • Pingali Venkayya was a fervant freedom fighter and the designer of the Indian National Tricolour who went on to become synonymous with the spirit of free and independent India.
  • Born on August 2, 1876 in Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh
  • Venkayya served as a soldier in the British Army in South Africa during the Anglo Boer war in Africa. Venkayya met the Mahatma during the war. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • He was a firm believer in Gandhian principles and an ardent nationalist
  • Venkayya spent most of his time researching about farming and cultivating cotton. He even went on to study Sanskrit, Urdu and Japanese in the Anglo Vedic School in Lahore.
  • Between 1918 and 1921, Venkayya raised the issue of having an own flag in every session of the Congress
  • Gandhi then asked Venkayya to design a fresh one at the national congress meeting in 1921.
  • Initially, Venkayya came up with saffron and green colours, but it later evolved with a spinning wheel at the centre and a third colour-white. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The flag was officially adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931. Hence statement 3 is correct

Source: TH

8. Consider the following statements

  1. India has three active research stations in the Antarctic region
  2. India is a part of Antarctic Treaty
  3. Indian Antarctic Programme is a scientific research and exploration program under the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Recalling India’s Antarctica activities

  • India became a member of the Antarctic Treaty in August 1983 and China followed in 1985. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • India has set up two manned (an inappropriate word since women scientists have also been part of expeditions doing the country proud) research stations in Antarctica — Maitri in 1988 and Bharati in 2012.

The Antarctic Treaty

  • The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve nations that had been active during the IGY (Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile, France, Japan, New Zealand, Norway, South Africa, United Kingdom, United States and USSR).
  • The Treaty, which applies to the area south of 60° South latitude
  • The Treaty now has 52 signatories

About Indian Antarctic program

  • The Indian Antarctic program, which began in 1981, has completed 40 scientific expeditions, and built three permanent research base stations in Antarctica, named DakshinGangotri (1983), Maitri (1988) and Bharati (2012). As of today, Maitri and Bharati are fully operational. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa—an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences—manages the entire Indian Antarctic program. Hence statement 3 is correct

Source: TH

9.  Consider the following statements regarding Collegium system

  1. It is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court
  2. It is headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other senior most judges of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Supreme Court collegium meets on next CJI, new postings

  • Besides Chief Justice of India N V Ramana, the collegium includes Justices U U Lalit, D Y Chandrachud, Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Abdul Nazeer.
  • The five-judge Supreme Court collegium, headed by Chief Justice of India N V Ramana

Appointment of Judges

  • Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President under Articles 124(2) and 217 of the Constitution.
  • The President is required to hold consultations with such of the judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts as he may deem necessary.

What is the collegium system?

  • It is the system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other seniormost judges of the court. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • A High Court collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other seniormost judges of that court.
  • Names recommended for appointment by a High Court collegium reaches the government only after approval by the CJI and the Supreme Court collegium.
  • Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.

How did the collegium system evolve?

  • The collegium system has its genesis in a series of Supreme Court judgments called the ‘Judges Cases’.
  • The collegium came into being through interpretations of pertinent constitutional provisions by the Supreme Court in the Judges Cases.
  • FIRST JUDGES CASE: In S P Gupta Vs Union of India, 1981, the Supreme Court by a majority judgment held that the concept of primacy of the Chief Justice of India was not really to be found in the Constitution.
  • SECOND JUDGES CASE: In The Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993, a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the decision in S P Gupta, and devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary.
  • THIRD JUDGES CASE: In 1998, President K R Narayanan issued a Presidential Reference to the Supreme Court over the meaning of the term “consultation” under Article 143 of the Constitution (advisory jurisdiction). The question was whether “consultation” required consultation with a number of judges in forming the CJI’s opinion, or whether the sole opinion of CJI could by itself constitute a “consultation”.

Source: IE

10. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2021)

  1. Digital security infrastructure
  2. Food security infrastructure
  3. Health care and education infrastructure
  4. Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Answer: (a) Digital security infrastructure

Explanation:

The Public Key Infrastructure is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world.

It is the framework of encryption and cybersecurity that protects communications between the server and the client.

It is based on digital certificates that verify the identity of the machines and/or users that ultimately proves the integrity of the transaction through encryption and decryption.