Recently, the term Sadabahar has been seen in the news, what is it?
It is a dwarf variety of mango that can be grown regularly for round the year.
It is a rare sandstone idol.
It is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka.
It is a style of folk painting old
Answer: (a) It is a dwarf variety of mango that can be grown regularly for round the year.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Kota farmer develops mango variety that bears fruits round the year
- Kota farmers develop a mango variety that bears fruits round the year. 55 year old Shrikishan Suman, a farmer from Kota, Rajasthan, has developed an innovative mango variety which is a regular and round-the-year dwarf variety of mango called Sadabahar, which is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders. Hence option (a) is correct
Key Features of Sadabahar:
- The fruit is resistant to most major diseases and common mango disorders.
- The fruit is sweeter in taste comparable to langra.(Langra is a variety of mango grown in Varanasi, Northern India, Bangladesh and Pakistan).
- The fruit is suitable for kitchen gardening, high-density plantation, and can be grown in pots for some years too.
- Besides, the flesh of the fruits is deep orange with sweet taste and the pulp has very less fiber content which differentiates it from other varieties.
- The Sadabahar mango variety has been verified by the National Innovation Foundation (NIF),
- This mango variety is also in the process of being registered under the ICAR-National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR).
Consider the following Statements with respect to ProrIISe Software
- It aims to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process
- It will be helpful for registering intellectual property developed by Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
- Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, (IISc) and Prorigo Software Pvt. Ltd. have together developed software that will help to automate the legal and bureaucratic part of the patent process for intellectual property developed by Indian academicians in large and small institutes. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct.
- The software is not only better suited for the use of academicians, but also comes at a fraction of the cost of software developed outside India — which was the only choice available until now.
- This software is available at a lesser cost when compared to the software available outside India. Earlier the only choice available was outside software products.
- Version 2.0 of the software is aimed for release in 2021. This version will automate the financial part also.
- Similarly, Version 3.0 may release in 2022. It will bring out artificial intelligence approaches to processes required to evaluate a patent.
About Intellectual property rights
- Intellectual property rights (IPR) are the rights given to persons over the creations of their minds: inventions, literary and artistic works, and symbols, names, and images used in commerce.
- These rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary or artistic productions.
- The importance of intellectual property was first recognized in the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883) and the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886). Both treaties are administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
Consider the following Statements with respect to Advanced Chaff Technology
It is used in naval ships worldwide to self-defend against enemy radar and radio frequency missile seekers.
It has developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: DRDO develops Advanced Chaff Technology to safeguard naval ships from missile attack
- The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an Advanced Chaff Technology to safeguard naval ships against missile attack. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Chaff is a passive expendable electronic countermeasure technology used worldwide to protect naval ships from enemy’s radar and Radio Frequency (RF) missile seekers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The importance of this development lies in the fact that very less quantity of chaff material deployed in the air acts as a decoy to deflect enemy’s missiles for safety of the ships.
- Defence Laboratory Jodhpur, a DRDO laboratory, has indigenously developed three variants of this critical technology — Short Range Chaff Rocket, Medium Range Chaff Rocket and Long Range Chaff Rocket — meeting Indian Navy’s qualitative requirements. The development of Advanced Chaff Technology by DRDO lab is another step towards Atmanirbhar Bharat.
- Recently, the Navy conducted trials of all three variants in the Arabian Sea on Indian Naval Ship and found the performance satisfactory
About Chaff
- Chaff is originally called Window. The idea of using Chaff developed in the era of the second world war.
- It is basically a radio frequency counter measure.
- It consists of aluminium coated glass fibres ranging in lengths of 0.75 centimetres to 0.8 centimetres. They are released in packets of 100 million such fibres.
- Most of the modern armed forces use chaff to distract the missiles from their targets.
- The warships use chaff for self-defence.
With respect to Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation And Conditions Of Service) Ordinance, 2021, Consider the following Statements
- It provides that the Chairperson and Members of the Tribunals will be appointed by the Central Government
- It seeks to empower the President of India to make rules for qualifications, appointment, term of office, salaries and conditions of service of Members of Tribunals.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Ordinance to usher in tribunal reforms issued
- The Centre has replaced Appellate authorities under as many as nine laws with High Courts. This has been done through the Tribunal Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance 2021, which was promulgated
- Through this Ordinance, appellate authorities under nine Acts have been done away with and the right to hear appeals under the statute has been conferred on High Courts.
- The proposed changes are based on the directions issued by the Supreme Court last year in the Madras Bar Association case.
About Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation And Conditions Of Service) Ordinance, 2021
- The Ordinance will abolish existing tribunals set up under laws relating to cinematograph, copyright, trademark, airport authority, customs, patents, and others and transfer the concerned functions to respective High Courts.
- Amendments to the Finance Act, 2017: Section 184 of the Finance Act, 2017 has been amended to empower the Central Government to make rules for qualifications, appointment, term of office, salaries and allowances, resignation, removal and other terms and conditions of service of Members of Tribunals. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It provides the Chairperson and Members of the Tribunals will be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a Search-cum-Selection Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It also provides the composition of the Committee, to be headed by the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him.
- Tenure: Chairperson of a Tribunal shall hold office for a term of 4 years or till he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Other Members of a Tribunal shall hold office for a term of 4 years or till he attains the age of 67 years, whichever is earlier.
The Ordinance omits following Tribunals/ Appellate Authorities from the purview of Finance Act:
- Airport Appellate Tribunal established under the Airport Authority of India Act, 1994.
- Appellate Board established under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
- Authority for Advance Ruling established under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- Film Certification Appellate Tribunal established under the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
Consider the following Statements with respect to Tribunals
- It is a quasi-judicial body set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes.
- It is originally a part of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Centre promulgates Tribunals Reforms Ordinance
About Tribunals
- Tribunals are not originally a part of the Constitution of India. They were introduced in 1985. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax-related disputes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Tribunals are created to avoid the regular courts’ route for dispensation of disputes.
- Some tribunals are specialised government agencies like boards and they also have decision-making powers conferred upon them by law.
- The 42nd Amendment Act introduced these provisions in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
- The provision for Tribunals was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act which added two new articles to the constitution.
- Article 323A: It empowers the parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for adjudicating the disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of a person appointed to public service of centre, states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authority.
- Accordingly parliament has enacted Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 which authorizes parliament to establish Centre and state Administrative tribunals (CAT & SATs).
- Article 323B: It empowers the parliament and the state legislatures to establish tribunals for adjudication of disputes related to matters of taxation, foreign exchange, industry and labour, land reforms, elections to parliament and state legislature, rent and tenancy Rights, etc.
- Tribunals were constituted with the objective of delivering speedy, inexpensive and decentralised adjudication of disputes in various matters.
About President’s Power of Ordinance Making
- Under the Constitution, the power to make laws rests with the legislature, however, in cases when Parliament is not in session and ‘immediate action’ is needed, the President can issue an ordinance.
- An ordinance is a law, and could introduce legislative changes.
- Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate Ordinances.
- It may relate to any subject that the Parliament has the power to legislate on.
- Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate.
- An ordinance may have retrospective effect and may be modified to repeal any act of Parliament or even another ordinance. It may also amend or alter a tax law but never can be used to amend the Constitution.
Consider the following Statements with respect to National Security Act (NSA)
- Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a charge for up to 12 months
- The detained person cannot appeal before a high court
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Detention despite bail: Why District Magistrates love the NSA
- A close scrutiny of the orders by District Magistrates invoking the National Security Act shows why the draconian law is so readily invoked.
- An analysis of records shows how the draconian law was invoked in UP to prevent the person from being released from judicial custody even if the accused had got bail.
About National Security Act (NSA)
- It is a stringent law that allows preventive detention for months, if authorities are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order.
- The person does not need to be charged during this period of detention. The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a crime.
- The former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi brought the National Security Act in 1980.
As per the National Security Act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person include:
- acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India.
- regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
- preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.
The maximum period of detention under National Security Act is:
- A person can be detained for up to 12 months without a charge. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- A person can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them.
- The person can appeal before a high court advisory board but will not be allowed a lawyer during the trial. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Provisions under National Security Act (NSA)
- The NSA empowers the state to detain a person without a formal charge and without trial.
- Under the NSA, a person is taken into custody to prevent him or her from acting in any manner prejudicial to “the security of the state” or for “maintenance of the public order”.
- It is an administrative order passed either by the Divisional Commissioner or the District Magistrate.
- It is not a detention ordered by police based on specific allegations or for a specific violation of the law.
- The DM can slap NSA against a person even if he is in police custody or if a person has been granted bail by a trial court.
Consider the following Statements with respect to National Supercomputing Mission
- It was set to establish a network of supercomputers ranging from a few Tera Flops (TF) to Hundreds of Tera Flops in academic and research institutions of National importance across the country by 2022.
- It is initiated jointly by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: India emerging a leader in supercomputing
- India is fast emerging a leader in high power computing with the National Super Computing Mission (NSM) boosting it to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups in areas like oil exploration, flood prediction as well as genomics and drug discovery
- Infrastructure planned in NSM Phase I has already been installed and much of Phase II will be getting in place soon.
- Phase III, initiated this year, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops. This will include three systems of 3 PF each and one system of 20PF as a national facility.
About National Supercomputing Mission
- It was launched to enhance the research capacities and capabilities in the country by connecting them to form a Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.
- The NSM is setting up a grid of supercomputing facilities in academic and research institutions across the country.
- The Mission is being jointly steered by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The target of the mission was set to establish a network of supercomputers ranging from a few Tera Flops (TF) to Hundreds of Teraflops (TF) and three systems with greater than or equal to 3 Peta Flops (PF) in academic and research institutions of National importance across the country by 2022. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- This network of Supercomputers envisaging a total of 15-20 PF was approved in 2015 and was later revised to a total of 45 PF (45000 TFs), a jump of 6 times more compute power within the same cost and capable of solving large and complex computational problems.
- PARAM Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by PARAM Shakti, PARAM Brahma, PARAM Yukti, PARAM Sanganak at IIT-Kharagpur IISER, Pune, JNCASR, Bengaluru and IIT Kanpur respectively.
- The NSM envisaged setting up a network of 70 high-performance computing facilities in the country but skewed funding for the mission during the initial years slowed down the overall pace of building supercomputers.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1709875\
Consider the following Statements with respect to Wolf-Rayet stars or WR stars.
It represents a final burst of activity before a huge star begins to die.
They are massive stars and strip their outer hydrogen envelope which is associated with the fusion of Helium and other elements in the massive core.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Supernova explosion traced to one of the hottest kind of stars
- Indian astronomers have tracked a rare supernova explosion and traced it to one of the hottest kinds of stars called Wolf–Rayet stars or WR stars.
- Indian astronomers have conducted the optical monitoring of one such stripped-envelope supernova called SN 2015 dj hosted in the galaxy NGC 7371 which was spotted in 2015.
- They calculated the mass of the star that collapsed to form the supernovae as well as the geometry of its ejection.
About Wolf–Rayet Stars
- Wolf-Rayet stars represent a final burst of activity before a huge star begins to die. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- These stars, which are at least 20 times more massive than the Sun, “live fast and die hard”.
- The rare Wolf–Rayet stars are highly luminous objects a thousand times that of the Sun and have intrigued astronomers for long.
- They are massive stars and strip their outer hydrogen envelope which is associated with the fusion of Helium and other elements in the massive core. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Wolf-Rayets stars are divided into 3 classes based on their spectra, the WN stars (nitrogen dominant, some carbon), WC stars (carbon dominant, no nitrogen) and WO where oxygen is in dominant quantities.
- The average temperature of a Wolf-Rayet star is greater than 25,000 Kelvin, and they can have luminosities of up to a million times that of the Sun.
- The scientists also found that the original star was a combination of two stars – one of them is a massive WR star and another is a star much less in mass than the Sun.
- Supernovae (SNe) are highly energetic explosions in the Universe releasing an enormous amount of energy.
- Long-term monitoring of these transients opens the door to understand the nature of the exploding star as well as the explosion properties. It can also help enumerate the number of massive stars.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1709863
.Consider the following Statements with respect to Xenobot
It is the world’s first living machines created by the Scientists in the United States
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
It is a tiny robots built from the cells of the African clawed frog
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Robots made from stem cells of frogs
- Researchers at Tufts University have developed robots from stem cells of frogs. These robots are named Xenobots and they can self-heal after damage, record memories and work together in groups.
- Scientists in the United States have created the world’s first “living robots” named “xenobots”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The tiny robots have been built from the cells of the African clawed frog. Scientists have repurposed living cells scraped from frog embryos and assembled them into entirely new life-forms. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The robots have been named after the species of aquatic frog Xenopus laevis, found across sub-Saharan Africa from Nigeria and Sudan to South Africa.
- The xenobots can move toward a target, perhaps pick up a payload (like a medicine that needs to be carried to a specific place inside a patient) — and heal themselves after being cut.
- They are less than a 1 millimeter (0.039 inches) wide and composed of just two things: skin cells and heart muscle cells, both of which are derived from stem cells harvested from early (blastula stage) frog embryos.
- They can self-heal after damage, record memories and work together in groups.
- These biological robots can record information about their surroundings and move using cilia – minute hair like particles present on their surface.
Applications
- These soft-body living machines can have several applications in biomedicine and the environment.
- They could be made from a human patient’s own cells, which would bypass the immune response challenges of other kinds of micro-robotic delivery systems.
- Such xenobots could potentially be used to scrape plaque from arteries and with additional cell types and bioengineering, locate and treat disease.
With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:
It is a public ledger that everyone we inspect, but which no single user controls
The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about crypto currency only.
Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records, also known as the block, of the public in several databases, known as the “chain,” in a network connected through peer -to -peer nodes. Typically, this storage is referred to as a ‘digital ledger.’ In simpler words, the digital ledger is like a Google spreadsheet shared among numerous computers in a network, in which the transactional records are stored based on actual purchases. The fascinating angle is that anybody can see the data, but they cannot corrupt it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The words “block” stands for digital information and “chain” stands for public database. Specifically, they have three parts: Blocks store information about transactions like the date, time, and dollar amount of your most recent purchase from any online site that works on a blockchain principle.
- Blocks store information that distinguishes them from other blocks. Even though the details of your new transaction would look nearly identical to your earlier purchase, we can still tell the blocks apart because of their unique codes. Hence statement 2 is not correct
- Blockchains can be both permissioned and non permissioned (permissionless). Public blockchain, typically permissionless as well, is the type associated with Bitcoin (the application depends on the basic features), where access and validation are open to participants, achieving high degree of decentralization. In private permissioned blockchain a trusted entity controls the validation and writing of data permissions. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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