Consider the following statements regarding Heat wave in India
It is typically occur between March and June
For the plains, a heat wave is declared when the maximum temperature is more than 40 degrees Celsius
It occurs in the North-Western and South Central parts of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Heat wave conditions likely in parts of central, west, NW India for next few days
- Heat wave conditions are likely in some parts of central, west and northwest India with severe heat wave conditions in isolated pockets over west Rajasthan
- Severe heat wave affected Delhi on Sunday as the maximum temperature was 40.1 degrees Celsius (°C), 8°C above normal
About Heat wave in India
- A heat wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western and South Central parts of India. Hence statement 3 is correct
- Heat waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July. Hence statement 1 is correct
- According to IMD, heat wave is recorded when departure of the maximum temperature from normal is + 4°C to + 5°C or more for the regions where the normal maximum temperature is more than 40°C. Further, an increase of 6°C or more is considered as severe heat wave condition.
- Another criterion for IMD to declare heat wave is when departure of the maximum temperature from normal is + 5°C to + 6°C for regions where the normal maximum temperature is 40°C or less. Further, an increase of 7°C or more from the normal temperature is considered as severe heat wave condition.
- Heat wave is declared only when the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for plains and at least 30°C for hilly regions. Hence statement 3 is correct
- Additionally, if the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, a heat wave is declared.
With reference to Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process, consider the following statements
It is a regional initiative of Afghanistan and the Republic of Turkey
It aims to promote regional security, economic and political cooperation centered on Afghanistan through dialogue and confidence building measures
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: S Jaishankar to attend Heart of Asia conference in Tajikistan today
- External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will attend the ninth Ministerial Conference of Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process (HoA-IP) on Afghanistan in Dushanbe
- The conference, being hosted in Tajikistan, is focused on strengthening a regional and international consensus for Afghan peace.
About Heart of Asia– Istanbul Process:
- The Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process is a regional initiative of Afghanistan and the Republic of Turkey, which was launched on 2 November 2011 in Istanbul, with the motto “İSTANBUL PROCESS ON REGIONAL SECURITY AND COOPERATION FOR A SECURE AND STABLE AFGHANISTAN”. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The Heart of Asia – Istanbul Process aims to promote and strengthen peace, security, stability and prosperity in Afghanistan and the region through Confidence building and regional cooperation amongst 15 regional countries. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The participating countries include Pakistan, Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkey, Turkmenistan and the United Arab Emirates.
- Since its inception in 2011 the HOA – IP has held 7 ministerial conferences hosted by different countries of the Heart of Asia region.
- Three pillars of this conference process are:
- Political Consultations: Political consultation involving Afghanistan and its near and extended neighbours
- Confidence Building Measures (CBMs): Areas for CBMs identified in the Istanbul Process document are Disaster management, Counter-terrorism, Counter-narcotics, Trade, Commerce and Investment, Regional infrastructure, and Education.
- Cooperation with Regional Organizations
Consider the following statements regarding Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia
It was established at the initiative of President of Kazakhstan outlined at the 47th UNGA in1992.
It consists of 27 member nations from Asia including India
For becoming a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar to be on a 2-day visit to Tajikistan from 30th March
- External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar will be on a two day visit to Tajikistan starting from 30th of this month.
- During the visit, he will have discussions with his Tajikistan counterpart Sirojiddin Muhriddin covering all aspects of the bilateral relations as well as regional and international issues of mutual interest.
- In June 2019, the External Affairs Minister had visited Dushanbe to attend the 5th Summit of Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia.
About Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia
- It is a forum aimed at enhancing cooperation through elaborating multilateral approaches towards promoting peace, security and stability in Asia.
- CICA was established at the initiative of President Nursultan Nazarbayev of Kazakhstan outlined at the 47th UNGA in1992. Hence statement 1 is correct
- For becoming a member of CICA, a state must have at least a part of its territory in Asia. Hence statement 3 is correct
- It consists of 27 member nations from Asia including India. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The highest decision making organ of CICA is the Meeting of the CICA Heads of State and Government.
- The CICA Summit is convened every four years in order to conduct consultations, review the progress of, and set priorities for CICA activities. Meeting of the Ministers of Foreign Affairs is required to be held every two years
- India underlined its commitment to a pluralistic cooperative security order in Asia through CICA. It also reaffirmed its support for Afghan peace process.
Consider the following statements
Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85 of the Constitution
Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: President Kovind prorogues fifth session of 17th Lok Sabha
- President Ram Nath Kovind has prorogued the fifth session of 17th Lok Sabha. The session had commenced on 29th January. President also prorogued the Rajya Sabha. The House was adjourned sine die on 25th of this month.
About Prorogation
- Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House. The President in exercising the power to prorogue the House acts on the advice of the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Usually, prorogation follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die.
- The time-lag between the adjournment of a House sine die and its prorogation is generally two to four days, although there are instances when a House was prorogued on the same day on which it was adjourned sine die.
- It is not necessary that both the Houses should be prorogued simultaneously.
- All pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019?
- It provides for reservations in public employment and education for the transgender persons.
- It provides transgender the right of residence with parents and immediate family members.
- It states that a person will be recognized as transgender on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by the Government hospital chief
- It also provide punishments for rape or sexual assault of transgender persons
Answer: (b) It provides transgender the right of residence with parents and immediate family members.
Explanation:
In NEWS: Transgender people can join NCC on basis of ‘self-perceived gender identity’: Kerala HC
- The High Court was hearing a plea filed by a transgender woman, Hina Haneefa, who had challenged Section 6 of the National Cadet Corps Act, 1948, which allows only males or females to enrol as cadets.
- A bench of Justice Anu Sivaraman noted that the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, recognises their right to a life of dignity, and prohibits discrimination.
- The judge directed the youth wing of the corps to amend the enrolment criteria to include transgender persons
About Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019
- It defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra.
- It seeks to establish a National Council for the Transgender Persons.
- The Act states that a transgender person shall have the right to self-perceived gender identity. A certificate of identity can be obtained at the District Magistrate’s office and a revised certificate is to be obtained if the sex is changed.
- The Act has a provision that provides the transgenders the right of residence with parents and immediate family members. Hence option (b) is correct
- The Act prohibits discrimination against a transgender person in various sectors, such as education, employment and healthcare etc.
- Any person who is found to be compelling a transgender person into bonded labour denying right of public passage to a transgender person, evicting a transgender from his/her place of residence, causing physical, sexual, verbal, economic and emotional abuse, can be penalised with imprisonment of not less than six months, that can extend up to two years.
- It is not mention any punishments for rape or sexual assault of transgender persons as according to Sections 375 and 376 of the Indian Penal Code, rape is only when a man forcefully enters a woman.
- The act does not provide for reservations in public employment and education for the transgender persons.
Consider the following sources of renewable energy
Large Hydropower Projects
Solar Power
Ocean thermal energy
Tidal Power
From the above options, which of the renewable energy comes/come under the policy of Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) in India?
- 2 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: PXIL launches Green Term Ahead Market for renewable energy trading
- Power Exchange of India Ltd (PXIL) has launched of Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) which will have both solar and non-solar electricity segments.
- GTAM is a new alternative model for trading in renewable energy following the CERC approval. This new mechanism has been introduced for selling off the power by the renewable developers in the open market without getting into long term PPAs.
- Currently, the PXIL holds above 60 per cent market share on an average in the Term Ahead Market segment which is expected to increase with the launch of GTAM.
- The Green Term Ahead Market contracts will allow the RE generators the flexibility to map their generation profile and at the same time purchasers will have an avenue to meet their Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO) requirements.
About Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO)
- Under Section 86(1) (e) of the Electricity Act 2003 (“EA 2003”) and the National Tariff Policy 2006, Renewable purchase obligation (RPO), is a mechanism by which the obligated entities are obliged to purchase certain percentage of electricity from Renewable Energy sources, as a percentage of the total consumption of electricity.
- RPOs are categorized as Solar and Non Solar RPO.
- Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has clarified to all the stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave, ocean thermal energy conversion etc. shall be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations
- The Ministry of Power (MoP) has issued a notification specifying renewable purchase obligation (RPO) targets, including large hydropower projects commissioned. Hence option (d) is correct
- With the objective to achieve the target of 175 GW of renewable energy by 2022, including solar energy capacity of 100 GW, Ministry of Power (MoP) have notified the target RPO trajectory up to year 2022
“It is a tiger reserve that encompasses the Shivaliks, near the foothills of the Himalayas. It was declared as a tiger reserve in 2015 and 48th Tiger Reserve of India. Most of the land is covered by Sal forests. More than 50 species of mammals including the highly endangered Asian Elephant and Tiger are found. Three species of deer – Sambhar, Spotted Deer (Cheetal) and Barking Deer (Kakar) and animals like Wild Boar, Neel Gai. Langoor, Black Napped Hare, Jungle cat etc are also found.” Which Tiger reserve is this?
Jim Corbett tiger reserve
Rajaji Tiger Reserve
Kanha Tiger Reserve
Orang Tiger Reserve
Answer: (b) Rajaji Tiger Reserve
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prakash Javadekar congratulates Mahinder Giri for winning International Ranger Award
- Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar has congratulated Mahinder Giri, range officer of Rajaji Tiger Reserve for being the only ranger from Asia to win the prestigious International Ranger Award for his contribution towards conservation. Hence option (b) is correct
- The award has been announced for 10 professionals across the world by the International Union for Conservation of Nature IUCN and World Commission on Protected Areas WCPA.
- Developed through a collaboration between the IUCN WCPA, the International Ranger Federation, Global Wildlife Conservation, and Conservation Allies, these awards, created in 2020, aim to highlight and felicitate the extraordinary work that rangers do in protected and conserved areas worldwide.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial Review
Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in fundamental rights in Part III
The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than the USA
USA follows the principle of judicial supremacy whereas India follows the principle of parliamentary supremacy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: Quran case, and the powers of judicial review
Power of judicial review:
- Under Indian law, only a “law” can be challenged as unconstitutional.
- Article 13(3) defines law, which includes any ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulations, notification, custom or usage having in the territory the force of law.
- “Laws in force” on the commencement of the Constitution include laws enacted by a legislature or other competent authority.
- This definition certain does not cover any religious scripture including the Quran. Similarly, neither the Vedas nor the Gita, nor the Bible, nor the Guru Granth Sahib can be said to be “law” under Article 13 and thus challenged in a court of law.
- The divine books can be sources of law but not law in themselves. Thus, Quran in itself is not “law” for the purposes of Article 13.
- It is the paramount source of Islamic law and Muslim jurists extract laws from it through interpretation and also taking into account other sources of law such as Hadees (Prophet’s sayings), Ijma (juristic consensus), Qiyas (analogical deductions), Urf ( customs), Istihsan (juristic preference) and Istisilah (public interest).
About Judicial review
- Judicial review is recognized as a necessary and a basic requirement for construction up of a novel civilization in order to safeguard the liberty and rights of the individuals. The power of judicial review is significantly vested upon the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India.
- Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in fundamental rights in Part III. It is stated that the State or the Union shall not make such rules that takes away or abridges the essential rights of the people. Hence statement 1 is correct
- India follows both, that is, the American principle of judicial supremacy and the British principle of parliamentary supremacy. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
- The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA, though American Constitution does not explicitly mention the concept of judicial review in any of its provisions. Hence statement 2 is correct
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Tiger Relocation Project
It is the first-of-its kind project was initiated in 2018
Under this project, tigers were relocated from Kanha Tiger Reserve to Satkosia Tiger Reserve
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
- The Inter-State Tiger Relocation Project has been put on hold after the first attempt failed.
- Sundari — a tigress shifted as part of India’s first inter-state translocation project in 2018 from Madhya Pradesh to Odisha — returned home.
- The five-year-old tigress spent 28 months in captivity in Satkosia Tiger Reserve, Odisha as the two states lingered on the process for her relocation despite the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) shelving off the much-vaunted inter-state tiger translocation drive.
About Relocation Project
- The tiger relocation project was initiated in 2018 wherein two big cats, a male (Mahavir) from Kanha Tiger Reserve and a female (Sundari) from Bandhavgarh from Madhya Pradesh were relocated to Satkosia Tiger Reserve in Odisha, to shore up the tiger population in the state. Hence statement 1 is correct and Hence statement 2 is correct
- Sundari was brought to Satkosia a week after Mahavir’s arrival.
- The project was estimated with a budget of Rs 19 crore and was started under the project of “augmentation and recovery of tiger population in Satkosia tiger reserve”. Six tigers (three pairs) from different reserves of Madhya Pradesh were to be sent to Odisha under the project.
Objectives: The relocation was meant to serve two purposes —
- Reducing tiger population in areas with excess tigers to majorly reduce territorial disputes.
- To reintroduce tigers in areas where the population has considerablyreduced due to various reasons.
What is the Satkosia Tiger Reserve and why was it chosen?
- Encompassing an area of 963.87 sq km, the Satkosia Tiger Reserve spreads across four districts and has as its core area 523 sq km.
- According to NTCA, Satkosia falls under reserves where “there is a potential for increasing tiger populations”.
- Declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2007, Satkosia had a population of 12 tigers then. The numbers reduced to two in 2018. The purpose of the relocation was to repopulate tigers in the reserve areas.
Reasons for failure of Project
- The major reason which contributed to the failure of the project was the lack of confidence and trust building between the forest department and the villagers.
- The field staff and tiger reserve management were not prepared. Capacity for tiger monitoring was poor.
- The local communities were not taken into confidence nor conveyed the benefits from tourism that tigers could bring them.
- Protection was not up to the mark and the only undisturbed, prey rich habitat was already occupied by the old resident tigress causing Sundari to occupy human dominated, disturbed areas.
Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because
he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
he wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India
Answer: (d) he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India
Explanation:
- Fort William College was established on 18 August 1800 by Lord Richard Wellesley (d. 1837), Governor General of Bengal, in order to provide instruction in the vernacular languages of India to the civil and military officials of the East India Company. It was named after King William III of England. The purposes were multi folded: fostering of Indian languages and making the British officials to be familiar with the local languages, etc . so that their administrative work would become easier as it involved interaction with the Indian natives
