1.Consider the following statements regarding Status of Tigers Co-predators and Prey in India
- Nagarhole Tiger Reserve of Karnataka has recorded the highest tiger density amongst 50 tiger reserves in India.
- Three reserves in Mizoram, West Bengal, and Jharkhand have no tigers.
- Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Corbett Reserve has highest tiger density in India: Report
- The report titled ‘Status of Tigers Co-predators and Prey in India’, released by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- Corbett Tiger Reserve of Uttarakhand has recorded the highest tiger density amongst 50 tiger reserves in India.CTR has 14 tigers per 100 square kilometers which is highest in India.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- CTR has the highest tiger numbers with 231 inside the reserve and 266 utilizing the reserve.
- Second place in terms of tiger density has been secured by Nagarhole Tiger Reserve (NTR) in Karnataka with 127 tigers followed at third place by Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) with 126 tigers and fourth place by Bandhavgarh and Kaziranga tiger reserves with 104 tigers each.
- Three reserves in Mizoram, West Bengal, and Jharkhand have no tigers.Hence statement 2 is correct
- The report evaluates the status of habitat corridors connecting major tiger populations and highlights vulnerable areas that require conservation attention for each landscape providing information on major carnivores and ungulates (hoofed mammals) regarding their distribution and relative abundance.
- The survey was done by dividing the country into four regions- Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains Landscape, Central Indian Landscape and Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats Landscape and North East Hills and Brahmaputra Plains Landscape.
- Notably, in a first, five tigers (two males and three females) will be translocated for the first time in Uttarakhand from Corbett Tiger Reserve to Rajaji Tiger Reserve in October this year to increase tiger population in the western part of RTR.
2.Consider the following statements regarding ammonia
- It is a colourless gas and is used as an industrial chemical in the production of fertilizers
- The acceptable maximum limit of ammonia in drinking water, as per the Bureau of Indian Standards, is 0.5 ppm
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:High levels of ammonia in Yamuna water: The cause, effect and possible solution
- For the second time in a week, the Delhi Jal Board (DJB) on Monday had to reduce water production capacity by 25 per cent after high levels of ammonia were detected in the Yamuna river.
- The acceptable maximum limit of ammonia in drinking water, as per the Bureau of Indian Standards, is 0.5 ppm. The DJB presently has the capacity to treat approximately 0.9 ppm.Hence statement 2 is correct
- What is ammonia and what are its effects?
- Ammonia is a colourless gas and is used as an industrial chemical in the production of fertilisers, plastics, synthetic fibres, dyes and other products. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Ammonia occurs naturally in the environment from the breakdown of organic waste matter, and may also find its way to ground and surface water sources through industrial effluents or through contamination by sewage.
- If the concentration of ammonia in water is above 1 ppm it is toxic to fishes. In humans, long term ingestion of water having ammonia levels of 1 ppm or above may cause damage to internal organs.
What is the long-term solution to the problem?
- Stringent implementation of guidelines against dumping harmful waste into the river, and making sure untreated sewage does not enter the water are two things pollution control bodies are expected to do.
- But, a more organic method agreed upon by environmentalists and experts is to maintain a sustainable minimum flow, called the ecological flow
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/high-levels-of-ammonia-in-yamuna-water-6527247/
3.Operation Breathing Space is associated with
- India and Israel
- India and china
- USA and India
- India and Australia
Answer: (a) India and Israel
Explanation:
In NEWS:Israeli team arrives for trials of four rapid COVID-19 tests, brings high-tech equipment
An Israeli team, led by a “high ranking” research and development (R&D) defense official, arrived in India with a multi-pronged mission, codenamed “Operation Breathing Space”.
Operation Breathing Space
- The team will be coordinated by Israel’s Ministry of Foreign Affairs (MFA), and Indian Ministry of Defence (MOD) and the Ministry of Health.Hence option (a) is correct
- The plans include four different kinds of rapid tests, which will be jointly developed after trials on Indian COVID-19 patients, as well as high-tech equipment to minimise exposure of medical staff to the virus, advanced respirators and special sanitisers developed in Israel.
- If even one of the tests proves to be effective in testing for coronavirus in 30-40 seconds, this could be a game changer for the whole world and how we behave, at least until we have a vaccine.
- The tests that the Israeli teams will be conducting trials for include an audio test, a breath test, thermal testing, and a polyamino test which seeks to isolate proteins related to COVID-19.
- The simple tests have been tried on a small sample of Israeli patients, and now would be tried in the next stage on a larger sample of Indian patients.
- The cooperation between Indian and Israeli scientists will also include sharing the most effective treatment protocols for COVID-19 patients.
4.Consider the following statements regardingthe new National Education Policy 2020
- It is based on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability
- The 10+2 structure of school curricula is to be replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.
- The new system will also have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/ pre-schooling.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS:New National Education Policy 2020: Explained – the breakdown of 10+2 to 5+3+3+4 system of school education
- This is the first education policy of the 21st century and replaces the 34-year-old National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986.
- The policy is based on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is also aligned to the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
- The policy aims to transform India into a vibrant knowledge society and global knowledge superpower by making both school and college education more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, suited to 21st century needs and aimed at bringing out the unique capabilities of each student.
- The 10+2 structure of school curricula is to be replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.Hence statement 2 is correct
- This will bring the hitherto uncovered age group of 3-6 years under the school curriculum, which has been recognized globally as the crucial stage for the development of mental faculties of a child.
- The new system will also have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/ pre-schooling.Hence statement 3 is correct
- NCERT will develop a National Curricular and Pedagogical Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education (NCPFECCE) for children up to the age of 8.
- The planning and implementation of ECCE will be carried out jointly by the Ministries of HRD, Women and Child Development (WCD), Health and Family Welfare (HFW), and Tribal Affairs.
- States will prepare an implementation plan for attaining universal foundational literacy and numeracy in all primary schools for all learners by grade 3 by 2025.
- About 2 crore out of school children will be brought back into mainstream under NEP 2020.
5.Consider the following statements regardingthe Air Quality Life Index
- It converts air pollution concentrations into their impact on life expectancy.
- It is produced by theIndia Meteorological Department (IMD).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Air pollution cut short lives of Telangana citizens by 3.1 years, reveals study
- Air pollution has shortened the average life expectancy of nearly 36 million residents of Telangana by 3.1 years, revealed a recent report by the Energy Policy Institute at The University of Chicago (EPIC).
- The report also stated that air pollution has reduced the average life expectancy of an Indian by 5.2 years.
- The report is based on an analysis of 20 years of pollution levels. The authors of the study use a tool — the Air Quality-Life Index (AQLI) — that estimates the effect air pollution has on life expectancy.
- Nearly 230 million residents of Uttar Pradesh are on track to lose more than eight years of life expectancy relative to the WHO guideline.
- Similarly, Delhi can add 9 years, West Bengal 7 years and Haryana 6 years by adhering to the standards.
About Air Quality Life Index
- It converts air pollution concentrations into their impact on life expectancy.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It helps determine the benefits of air pollution policies in perhaps the most important measure that exists: longer lives.
- It is produced by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC), based on frontier research by EPIC’s director Michael Greenstone that quantified the causal relationship between human exposure to air pollution and reduced life expectancy.Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- It makes evident that policies that reduce fossil fuel use can allow people to live longer and healthier lives today, as well as reduce the risks of disruptive climate change.
6.Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
- The main aim of the programme would be 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024.
- The programme would take 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Air pollution can cut short life by 10 years
- Life expectancy in Uttar Pradesh is projected to drop by 8.6 years, while residents of Lucknow — the most polluted city according to the report — stand to lose 10.3 years. Lucknow’s current pollution levels are 11 times more than WHO norms.
- The national capital is close behind, with Delhi residents set to lose as much as 9.4 years. According to the report released on Tuesday by the Energy Policy Institute at University of Chicago, India is the world’s second most polluted country.
- It says 1.4 billion people live in areas where the annual average particulate pollution level exceeds WHO guidelines. Plus, 84% live in areas where it exceeds India’s own air quality standards.
- NCAP goals are non-binding, if India does achieve this reduction, it would lead to remarkable health improvements: a nationwide reduction of 25%, the midpoint of the NCAP’s target, would increase national life expectancy by 1.6 years, and by 3.1 years for Delhi residents
About National Clean Air Programme
- The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is envisaged as a scheme to provide the States and the Centre with a framework to combat air pollution.
- The National Clean Air Programme is a pollution control initiative that was launched by the Ministry of Environment.
- The main aim of the programme would be 20-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024.Hence statement 1 is correct
- The programme would take 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.Hence statement 2 is correct
- The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
- City specific action plans are being formulated for 102 non-attainment cities identified for implementing mitigation actions under NCAP.
7.Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services
- All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.
- It is not a United Nations body.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Fewer species, more disease
- Scientists believe that the loss of bio diversity, and wildlife trade, have strong linkages with the emergence of epidemics. The pandemic is an opportunity for the global community to explore the consequences of its unscientific actions on nature and prepare for behavioural change.
- Dangerous infectious diseases (Ebola, Bird flu, MERS, SARS, Nipah, etc.) have been transferred from wild animals to humans.
- Human induced environmental changes reduce biodiversity resulting in new conditions that host vectors and/or pathogens.
- Apart from wildlife markets, illegal trade of wildlife is part of the growing problem.
- Illegal wildlife smuggling is an emerging threat to India’s unique wildlife heritage.
- Nations should work towards realising the 2050 vision for biodiversity, ‘Living in Harmony with Nature’. We must follow a ‘one health’ approach which considers the health of people, wild and domesticated animals, and the environment.
- The IPBES Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services shows that people extensively encroach natural habitats. The report identified a range of risks, from the disappearance of insects vital for pollinating food crops, to the destruction of coral reefs that support fish populations that sustain coastal communities, or the loss of medicinal plants.
About Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES)
- It is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services.
- It was established in Panama City in 2012 by 94 Governments.
- All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is not a United Nations body. Hence statement 2 is correct
- But the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
- IPBES focuses on assessments, building capacity and knowledge, policy support on Biodiversity.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/fewer-species-more-disease/article32224701.ece
8.Consider the following statements regarding Wassenaar Arrangement
- It is a voluntary export control regime and by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods
- It has its secretariat in New York
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Shaping the digital world
- Like India, the U.S. is considering banning TikTok citing national security concerns. American allies and partners including India are now wondering whether they should al low Chinese companies like Huawei and ZTE to build their 5G networks.
- While banning Chinese apps could have been a strategic necessity in the short run, the hastiness of this move should propel longterm strategic thinking on how digital issues constrain India’s foreign policy
- Apart from protecting security interests through these debates, India must function as a ruleshaper to preserve the civil, political and economic rights of its citizens.
- New Delhi must ensure that export control regimes like the Wassenaar Arrangement and the Missile Technology Control Regime regulate the use and impacts of dual use surveillance technology that have been used to target Indian journalists, lawyers and activists.
About Wassenaar Arrangement
- The Wassenaar Arrangement has been established in order to contribute to regional and international security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilising accumulations.Hence statement 1 is correct
- Wassenaar Arrangement’s Secretariat is in Vienna, Austria.Hence statement 2 is correct
- It has 42 member states comprising mostly NATO and EU states
- It is a successor to the Coordinating Committee for Multilateral Export Controls (COCOM) from the Cold War era.
- The Wassenaar Arrangement Plenary is the decision-making body of the Arrangement.
- India was inducted to the Wassenaar Arrangement on 7 December, 2017 as the 42nd member.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/shaping-the-digital-world/article32224942.ece
9.Consider the following statements regarding Rafale
- It is a twin-engine, canard-delta wing, multirole combat aircraft designed and built by French company Dassault Aviation
- It is 4.5 Generation jet and can reach almost double the speed of sound, with a top speed of 1.8 Mach.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Rafale a game changer, now IAF challenge is to boost jet strength
The strength of 29 squadrons by 2023 includes two Rafale squadrons, one additional MiG-29 squadron and one additional squadron of indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas jets, into the IAF fleet as per schedule.
About Rafale
- Rafale is a twin-engine, canard-delta wing, multirole combat aircraft designed and built by French company Dassault Aviation.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is 4.5 Generation jet and can reach almost double the speed of sound, with a top speed of 1.8 Mach.Hence statement 2 is correct
- The jet has one of the most advanced Meteor air-to-air missiles; it has a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) of over 100 km, traveling at a top speed of Mach 4.
- The Rafale jets has SCALP, the air-to-ground cruise missile with a range over 300 km. It is a long-range deep strike missile.
- The aircraft is fitted with an Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS) which suppresses the need for liquid oxygen re-filling or ground support for oxygen production.
- The fighter jet, equipped with a wide range of weapons, is intended to perform air supremacy, interdiction, aerial reconnaissance, ground support, in-depth strike, anti-ship strike and nuclear deterrence missions.
10.Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
- Chalukya
- Chandela
- Rashtrakuta
- Vijayanagara
Answer: (d) Vijayanagara
Explanation:
- In the Vittala Temple of Hampi, pavilions or mandapas that were meant to celebrate the marriages of dieties were known as Kalyan Mandapa.
- Kalyana Mandapas, meant to celebrate divineweddings, was a notable feature of the Vijaynagara Kingdom. Hence option (d) is correct
