1. Consider the following statements about memory technology
1) The one-time programmable memory is the memory which is written once, stored for a lifetime, and retrieved and used many times.
2) These OTP memories are used for chip identity, secure information storage and chip calibration for error correction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indigenous memory technology moves from lab to fab
● IIT Bombay researchers have developed a “memory technology” that can, in principle, revolutionise Indian industry and the many applications that need semiconductor chips, such as in the defence sector, automobiles and future aspirations in cell phone manufacturing.
● Hard disks, flash memory, etc, are examples of memory technology.
● There is also another form of memory called the one-time programmable memory (OTP) where the memory is written once, stored for a lifetime, and retrieved and used many times. Hence statement 1 is correct
● This finds varied uses, one of which is in correcting faulty chips that have been mass produced for specific applications.
● OTP memories are also used for other purposes, mainly three: chip identity, secure information storage and chip calibration for error correction. Hence statement 2 is correct
● For instance, think of a chip that helps read off the temperature.
● Due to a manufacturing defect, the chip may read 100 degree Celsius as 101 degree Celsius.
● This “offset” of 1 degree may be corrected by storing the error correction parameter in the OTP memory.
● This is done uniquely for each chip and once stored, the memory corrects the chip’s output for its lifetime.
How does it work?
● To store the correction value, the researchers used eight memory cells, each of which would store one “bit” (that is a value of zero or one).
● Each of the memory cells consist of an ultrathin silicon dioxide layer which is 10-15 atomic layers thick.
● This is deposited uniformly over a dinner plate–sized eight-inch silicon wafer to form millions of nanoscale capacitors.
● The pristine silicon dioxide layer is insulating, passing a very low current [which in digital electronics is read as a “0”].
● A nanoscale lightning is generated of 3.3 volts to blow the capacitor, leading to a short circuit that produced high current [this is a “1”].
● Thus, the OTP memory remembers either the “0” state or “1” state through its lifetime.
2. Consider the following statements
1) Dark energy is an unknown form of energy that affects the universe on a large scale.
2) While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What is dark energy, and have scientists finally detected it?
● The XENON1T experiment is the world’s most sensitive dark matter experiment and was operated deep underground at the INFN Laboratori Nazionali del Gran Sasso in Italy.
● The finding also suggests that experiments like XENON1T, which are designed to detect dark matter, could also be used to detect dark energy.
What is Dark Energy?
● Dark energy is an unknown form of energy that affects the universe on the largest scales. Hence statement 1 is correct
● The first observational evidence for its existence came from measurements of supernovae, which showed that the universe does not expand at a constant rate; rather, the expansion of the universe is accelerating.
● Prior to these observations, it was thought that all forms of matter and energy in the universe would only cause the expansion to slow down over time.
● Measurements of the cosmic microwave background suggest the universe began in a hot Big Bang, from which general relativity explains its evolution and the subsequent large-scale motion.
● Without introducing a new form of energy, there was no way to explain how an accelerating universe could be measured.
● Everything we see – the planets, moons, massive galaxies, you, me, this website – makes up less than 5% of the universe.
● About 27% is dark matter and 68% is dark energy.
● While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Hence statement 2 is correct
3. With respect to National Mission on Cultural Mapping, Consider the following statements
1) It is aimed to address the necessity of preserving the threads of rich Indian Art and Cultural Heritage
2) It is a mission mode project of the Ministry of Culture
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: IGNCA to start cultural mapping in 75 villages soon
● Having made little progress since its launch in 2017, the National Mission on Cultural Mapping has now been handed over to the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), which is gearing up for a trial run in 75 villages
● The Culture Ministry had approved the mission in 2017 with a ₹469 crore budget from 2017-2018 to 2019-2020, according to the administrative approval for the project
About the National Mission on Cultural Mapping
● The NMCM is a mission mode project of the Ministry of Culture. It was enacted on 2015. Hence statement 1 is correct
● It is aimed to address the necessity of preserving the threads of rich Indian Art and Cultural Heritage, convert vast and widespread cultural canvas of India into an objective Cultural Mapping while creating a strong “Cultural Vibrancy” throughout the nation. Hence statement 2 is correct
● It will identify, collect and record cultural assets and resources. It correlates this to planning and strategizing.
● A portal and a database listing organisations, spaces, facilities, festivals and events will be created.
● This database can be used to preserve culture and provide or ameliorate livelihoods.
Objectives of the Mission
● Under this Mission, at broad-level, there are three important objectives as follows:
● National Cultural Awareness Abhiyan: Hamari Sanskriti Hamari Pahchan Abhiyan (Our Culture Our Identity)
● Nationwide Artist Talent Hunt/Scouting Programme: Sanskritik Pratibha Khoj Abhiyan
● National Cultural Workplace: Centralised Transactional Web Portal with database and demography of cultural assets and resources including all art forms and artists.
4. Swiss challenge is related to which one of the following statements?
a) It is a method of bidding
b) It is a method to classifies the workers on the basis of employment status
c) It is a part of bilateral investment treaties
d) It refers to the total revenue earned by the Telecom companies in India.
Answer: (a) It is a method of bidding
Explanation:
In NEWS: IL&FS Fin Services plans to sell 62 NPAs accounts worth ₹4,297 crore via Swiss Challenge method
● IL&FS Financial Services (IFIN), wholly-owned subsidiary of Infrastructure Leasing and Financial Services, on Monday placed 62 non-performing asset (NPA) accounts worth ₹4,297 crore on sale.
● The lender said the sale of NPAs will be done through the ‘Swiss Challenge’ route.
● IFIN proposes to undertake a ‘Swiss Challenge’ process, using the initial bid as the base offer
About Swiss challenge
● Swiss challenge method is a method of bidding, often used in public projects, in which an interested party initiates a proposal for a contract or the bid for a project. Hence option (a) is correct
● Under the Swiss Challenge method, the highest bid in the first round of bidding becomes the base price for bidders, including for the highest bidder, to place counter-bids in the second round of bidding. The asset goes to the highest bidder in the second round.
● The government then puts the details of the project out in the public and invites proposals from others interested in executing it.
● On the receipt of these bids, the original proposer gets an opportunity to match the best bid. In case, the original proposer fails to match the bid, the project is awarded to the proposer of the best bid.
5. Consider the following statements
1) The right of an institution whether run by a majority or minority community, to get government aid is a fundamental right.
2) Article 30(1) states that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: An institution’s right to govt. aid is not a fundamental right: SC
● The right of an institution, whether run by a majority or minority community, to get government aid is not a fundamental right. Both have to equally follow the rules and conditions of the aid, the Supreme Court held in a judgment. Hence statement 1 is not correct
● Whether it is an institution run by the majority or the minority, all conditions that have relevance to the proper utilisation of the grant-in-aid by an educational institution can be imposed.
● All that Article 30(2) states is that on the ground that an institution is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language, grant of aid to that educational institution cannot be discriminated against, if other educational institutions are entitled to receive aid
● The Bench clarified that if the government made a policy call to withdraw aid, an institution cannot question the decision as a “matter of right”.
● A grant of government aid comes with accompanying conditions. An institution is free to choose to accept the grant with the conditions or go its own way
About ARTICLE 30
Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
● All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Hence statement 2 is correct
● The State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.
6. With respect to State Disaster Response Funds, Consider the following statements
1) It has been constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
2) The annual Central contribution is released in two equal instalments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
3) Hail storm and Pest attack disasters are not covered under SDRF
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: govt. notifies covid compensation
● The Delhi government has so far received 9,643 applications seeking ex-gratia relief under the “Mukhyamantri Covid-19 Parivar Arthik Sahayata Yojna” out of which compensation was disbursed in 6,019 cases, revenue minister Kailash Gahlot
● The financial assistance scheme for Covid-19 deaths was notified on June 23 this year, after the second wave of the pandemic took a heavy toll in Delhi.
● It covers a one-time assistance of ₹50,000 for each Covid-19 death in the family and a monthly assistance of ₹2,500 for families that lost their primary breadwinner and for children orphaned by the viral disease.
About State Disaster Response Funds
● SDRF has been constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct
● It is the primary fund available with the State governments for responses to notified disasters to meet expenditure for providing immediate relief.
● The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for general category States and Union Territories and 90% for special category States and Union Territories (northeastern States, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir).
● The annual Central contribution is released in two equal installments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission. Hence statement 2 is correct
● Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
● A State Government may use up to 10% of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Source: TH
7. With respect to Akash Prime, Consider the following statements
1) It is a new version of surface-to-air missile
2) It is equipped with an indigenous active Radio Frequency seeker for improved accuracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: DRDO tests Akash Prime missile
● The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on Monday successfully tested a new version of Akash Surface to Air missile Akash Prime from the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur, Odisha. Hence statement 1 is correct
● In comparison to the existing Akash System, Akash Prime is equipped with an indigenous active Radio Frequency (RF) seeker for improved accuracy. Other improvements also ensure more reliable performance under low temperature environment at higher altitudes. Hence statement 2is correct
● In its maiden flight test after improvements, the missile intercepted and destroyed an unmanned aerial target mimicking enemy aircraft
● Designed and developed by DRDO, Akash outclasses in performance compared to the short range missile systems offered by various countries in range, altitude, average speed, low cost per kill and built in electronic counter measures.
● The system can defend an area at least 10 times better compared to any SAM besides having a wider no escape zone.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-tests-akash-prime-missile/article36698998.ece
8. With respect to PM KUSUM Scheme, Consider the following statements
1) It aims to support installation of off-grid solar pumps in rural areas and reduce dependence on grid, in grid-connected areas.
2) It was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Revitalising PM-KUSUM
● The Union Minister of Power, New and Renewable Energy recently reviewed the progress of the PM-KUSUM scheme and reaffirmed the government’s commitment to accelerating solar pump adoption. Hence statement 2 is correct
● Launched in 2019, PM-KUSUM aims to help farmers access reliable day-time solar power for irrigation, reduce power subsidies, and decarbonise agriculture. Hence statement 2 is correct
● PM-KUSUM provides farmers with incentives to install solar power pumps and plants in their fields.
● They can use one of three deployment models: off-grid solar pumps, solarised agricultural feeders, or grid-connected pumps.
● The scheme will open a stable and continuous source of income to the rural land owners for a period of 25 years by utilisation of their dry/uncultivable land. Further, in case cultivated fields are chosen for setting up solar power project, the farmers could continue to grow crops as the solar panels are to be set up above a minimum height.
● The scheme would ensure that sufficient local solar/ other renewable energy based power is available for feeding rural load centres and agriculture pump-set loads, which require power mostly during the day time.
PM-KUSUM consists of three components and aims to add a solar capacity of 30.8 GW by 2022:
● Component-A: 10,000 MW of decentralised ground-mounted grid-connected renewable power plants.
● Component-B: Installation of two million standalone solar-powered agriculture pumps.
● Component-C: Solarisation of 1.5 million grid-connected solar-powered agriculture pumps.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/revitalising-pm-kusum/article36702534.ece
9. Which of the following Institutions/Organizations releases the All India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey?
a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation
d) NITI Aayog
Answer: (a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
Explanation:
In NEWS: Jobs increased by 29% since 2013, says survey
● The All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey said that the overall employment numbers had increased by 29% from the base year of 2013-14.
● The report, released by Labour and Employment Minister Bhupender Yadav, covered 10,593 firms that employed more than 10 workers and were spread over nine sectors that account for 85% of the total employment in such establishments. Hence option (a) is correct
● Overall, employment stood at 3.08 crore in the first quarter, up from 2.37 crore as reported in the Sixth Economic Census (2013-2014).
● All but two sectors — trade and accommodation & restaurants — saw an increase in employment over the period.
● All but two sectors — trade and accommodation & restaurants — saw an increase in employment over the period.
● The report said the IT/BPO sector had the most impressive growth (152%), followed by health (77%), transport (68%), financial services (48%), construction (42%), education (39%) and manufacturing (22%).
● Manufacturing was found to account for 41% of the establishments, followed by education (22%) and health (8%).
● There was a decline in employment in trade (25%) and accommodation and restaurants (13%)
● The number of female workers showed a decline too, from 31% in the Sixth Economic Survey to 29% as of the first quarter of the quarterly employment survey.
10. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation:
● Sarkaria Commission on inter-state relations in its report dealt with the role of Governors.
● It suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
