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Daily Prelims Test – 28_December_2021

1. The Indravati National Park (INP) is located in which one of the following states?

a)    Chhattisgarh

b)   Jharkhand

c)    Andhra Pradesh

d)   Uttarakhand

Answer: (a) Chhattisgarh

Explanation:

In NEWS: Tiger survey: Census work covers 400 sq km in Chhattisgarh’s Maoist territory

●      Indravati Tiger Reserve had three tigers in 2018-19

●      The tiger census work covered 400 square kilometres in Indravati Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh’s Bijapur district. This is the first time tiger counting will be carried in such a large area of the reserve, which is a Maoist-affected area.

●      The tiger reserve spans 2799.1 sq km; the core area is 1,258.4 sq km. The reserve had three tigers in 2018-19, when the last census took place.

Indravati National Park (INP)

●      Indravati Tiger Reserve is in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh. The perennial river ‘Indravati’ forms the boundary of the reserve on the Northern and Western side, which also happens to be the inter-state boundary between Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra. Hence option (a) is correct.

●      The habitat is large and rich with a good potential, being contiguous with the forests of Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.

●      It has a good biodiversity and also has a small population of the endangered wild buffalo.

●      In general, the landscape is conflict ridden owing to the left wing extremism.

●       It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo.

●      The flora in the Indravati National Park mainly comprises tropical moist and dry deciduous type with predominance of the sal, teak and bamboo trees. 

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/tiger-survey-census-work-covers-400-sq-km-in-chhattisgarh-s-maoist-territory-80859

2. Consider the following statements:

1)  Equity Grant Scheme extends support to the equity base of Farmer Producer Companies.

2)  The Equity Grant Scheme was implemented by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Low grant sanctions, disbursement: India wants to promote FPOs but where are the funds?

●      Farmer producer organisations (FPO) figure prominently in government policies and the ambitious plan to double farmers’ income by 2022. But funds remain elusive for these bodies, according to a recent analysis. 

●      Just 1-5 percent of FPOs have received funding under central government schemes introduced to promote them in the last seven years, the The State of India’s Livelihood (SOIL) Report 2021 stated.

●      Maharashtra has the highest number of cases sanctioned (144), followed by Tamil Nadu at 104 and Uttar Pradesh at 96. West Bengal has the highest coverage, followed closely by Karnataka and then Tamil Nadu, according to the report.

Equity Grant Scheme:

●      Equity Grant Scheme extends support to the equity base of Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs) by providing matching equity grants. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      It is subject to a maximum of Rs. 15.00 lakh per FPC in two tranches within a period of 3 Year and to address nascent and emerging FPCs which have paid up capital not exceeding Rs. 30.00 lakh.

●      Under the Equity Grant Scheme, Small Farmers’ Agri-business Consortium (SFAC), promoted by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

It primary objectives:

●      Enhancing viability and sustainability of FPCs .

●      Enhancing credit worthiness of FPCs.

●      Enhancing the shareholding of members to increase their ownership and participation in their FPC.

About Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme

●      It provides a Credit Guarantee Cover to the Eligible Lending Institution (ELI) to enable them to provide collateral free credit to FPCs.

●      In the Credit Guarantee Scheme, which provides risk cover to banks that advance collateral-free loans to FPCs up to Rs 1 crore, only about 1 percent of registered producer companies have been able to avail the benefits.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/low-grant-sanctions-disbursement-india-wants-to-promote-fpos-but-where-are-the-funds–80864

3. Consider the following statements:

1)   Rogue planets are planetary bodies that do not revolve around the star and float freely in space.

2)   Rogue planets orbit the galaxy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Scientists discover over 70 rogue planets roaming freely on their own

●      An international team of astronomers has discovered the largest group of ‘rogue planets’.

●      Rogue planets do not orbit a star and exoplanet hunters have found few such planets in our galaxy. Hence statement (1) is correct and statement (2) is correct.

●      European Southern Observatory (ESO) telescopes and other facilities have just discovered at least 70 new rogue planets in our galaxy. This is the largest group of rogue planets ever discovered, an important step towards understanding the origins and features of these mysterious galactic nomads.

●      Instead of stars, they orbit the galaxy. They are gravitationally unbound to any stars. Due to this, their detection in space is very hard.

●      Astronomers detect rogue planets using an astronomical phenomenon called gravitational microlensing.

●      Gravitational microlensing was predicted in 1936 by Einstein using his General Theory of Relativity. It is the process of brightening of a star by an object passing between the star and an observer.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/scientists-discover-70-rogue-planets-roaming-freely-7691414/

4. With respect to Anti-dumping Duty, consider the following statements:

1)   It is imposed to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect.

2)   The imposition of anti-dumping duty is permissible under the World Trade Organization regime.

3)   These tariffs can lead to lower prices for domestic consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    3 only

b)   2 and 3 only

c)    1 and 2 only

d)   1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: India imposes anti-dumping duty on 5 Chinese goods for 5 years

●      India has imposed anti-dumping duty on five Chinese products, including certain aluminium goods and some chemicals, for five years to guard local manufacturers from cheap imports from the neighbouring country.

●      According to separate notifications of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), the duties have been imposed on certain flat rolled products of aluminium; sodium hydrosulphite (used in dye industry); silicone sealant (used in manufacturing of solar photovoltaic modules, and thermal power applications); hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) component R-32; and hydrofluorocarbon blends (both have uses in refrigeration industry).

●      These duties were imposed following recommendations of the Commerce Ministry’s investigation arm, the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR).

Anti-dumping duty:

●      An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are dumped. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      The use of anti-dumping measures as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the World Trade OrganisationHence statement (2) is correct.

●      ADD is a customs duty on imports providing a protection against the dumping of goods at prices substantially lower than the normal value whereas Countervailing duty is a customs duty on goods that have received government subsidies in the originating or exporting country.

●      It is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market valueHence statement (3) is incorrect.

●      The anti-dumping duty can be anywhere from 0% up to 550% of the invoice value of the goods.

●      According to the WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement, dumping is legal unless it threatens to cause material injury or material retardation in the importing country’s domestic market.

●      In case of dumping, the WTO permits the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is substantive evidence.

●      The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.

●      But the governments can not discriminate between trading partners and need to honour the DATT 1994 principal when calculating the duty.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-imposes-anti-dumping-duty-on-5-chinese-goods-for-5-years/article38044225.ece

5. Consider the following statements regarding Technology Development Board:

1)   It is a statutory body constituted under the Technology Development Board Act, 1995.

2)   It aims to promote the development and commercialization of indigenous technology and adaptation of imported technology for wider application.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: TDB supports development and production of receiver modules essential for an app that provides navigation support

●      India will soon develop and manufacture receiver modules essential for the NavIC (NAVigation with Indian Constellation), an application developed by ISRO for a constellation of seven satellites that, together, provide navigation support over India and 1,500 km around it.

●      Support for scaling up this technology, which is also essential for GPS (Global Positioning Systems)s will be a significant step in positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing

●      The company has also designed and fabricated a baseband processor using the patented Universal Multifunctional Accelerator (UMA). This UMA can be used in generic Digital Signal Processing (DSP) applications such as Server Acceleration, Edge Computing, Node Computing, Computer Vision, Signal Processing, etc.

Technology Development Board:

●      It is a statutory body constituted under the Technology Development Board Act, 1995Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      It functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

●      It aims to promote the development and commercialization of indigenous technology and adaptation of imported technology for wider application.   Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The Board plays a proactive role by encouraging enterprises to take up technology-oriented products.

●      It provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.

●      The loan carries a simple interest rate of 5% per annum.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1785119

6. Consider the following statements regarding State Health Index:

1)   It has been prepared in collaboration with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with technical assistance from the World Bank.

2)   It is a weighted composite index based on 24 indicators grouped under the domains of ‘Health Outcomes’, ‘Governance and Information’, and ‘Key Inputs/Processes’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: UP last again in NITI Aayog Health Index 2019-20, Kerala tops ranking

●      As good news, India’s most populous state shows the highest incremental performance between 2018-19 and 2019-20.

●      Poll-bound Uttar Pradesh has once again figured at the bottom of 19 large states on the fourth NITI Aayog health index for 2019-20, released

●      It has been prepared in collaboration with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with technical assistance from the World Bank. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana are the top three, which means for four times in a row Kerala has emerged the best in overall health performance.

●      All the states and Union Territories (UTs) except West Bengal participated. Ladakh was not included owing to the non-availability of data.

●      The rankings, which pertain to the period just before the pandemic struck the country, showed through figuring at the bottom of the heap in overall performance, UP is the best state in terms of incremental performance between 2018-19 and 2019-20.

●      The index is a weighted composite score incorporating 24 indicators covering key aspects of health performance, largely in three domains: Health outcomes; governance and information; and key inputs and processes. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The indicators are selected from data sources such as the Sample Registration System (SRS), Civil Registration System (CRS), and Health Management Information Systems (HMIS).

●      Telangana performed well both in terms of overall as well as incremental performance and secured third place on both counts.

●      Among the smallest states, Mizoram emerged the best performer in overall as well as incremental performance while among UTs, Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir ranked among the bottom in terms of overall performance but emerged the leading performers in incremental performance.

●      The index showed that the gap in overall performance between the best- and the worst-performing larger states and UTs narrowed in the current round of the health index, while it increased for the smaller states.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/up-last-again-in-niti-aayog-health-index-2019-20-kerala-tops-ranking-121122700547_1.html

7. Consider the following statements regarding flex-fuel vehicle:

1)   It is capable of operating on gasoline and any blend of gasoline and ethanol up to 83%.

2)   It is different from the bi-fuel vehicles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:

●      The Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari has said that in order to substitute India’s import of petroleum as a fuel and to provide direct benefits to farmers

●      The Automobile Manufacturers in India have now been advised to start manufacturing Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFV) and Flex Fuel Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicles (FFV-SHEV) complying with BS-VI Norms in a time-bound manner within a period of six months.

●      Flex Fuel Vehicles are capable of running on a combination of 100% Petrol or 100% bio-ethanol and their blends, along with strong Hybrid Electric technology in case of FFV-SHEVs.

Flex Fuel Vehicles:

●      Flexible fuel vehicles (FFVs) have an internal combustion engine and are capable of operating on gasoline and any blend of gasoline and ethanol up to 83%. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●      FFVs have one fuel system, and most components are the same as those found in a conventional gasoline-only car.

●      It usually runs on gasoline blended with either ethanol or methanol fuel. Both of the fuels are stored in the same common tank. The engines of the vehicle are capable of burning any proportion of the resulting blend in its combustion chamber.

●      The fuel injection and spark timing are automatically adjusted in accordance with the actual blend detected by the fuel composition sensor.

●      The FFV is different from the bi-fuel vehicles.

●      In the bi-fuel vehicle, two fuels are stored in the separate tanks and the engine runs on one fuel at a timeHence statement (2) is correct.

●      In India, the FFVs will present a different advantage because the vehicles will allow the vehicles to use the different blends of ethanol mixed petrol which are available across the country as opposed to the current regulation.

●      The current regulation allows to mix up to 10 percent ethanol in petrol. But due to shortage in supply & other transportation challenges, 10 percent blended petrol is available only across 15 states.

Source: TH

8. Consider the following statements regarding Psyche mission:

1)   It is a journey to a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter.

2)   It is an initiative of NASA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    1 only

b)   2 only

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: How NASA’s Psyche Mission Will Explore an Unknown World We Can Barely Pinpoint From Earth

●      Launching in August 2022 and arriving at the asteroid belt in 2026, NASA’s Psyche spacecraft will orbit a world we can barely pinpoint from Earth and have never visited. . Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The target of NASA’s Psyche mission – a metal-rich asteroid, also called Psyche, in the main belt between Mars and Jupiter – is an uncharted world in outer space.

●      From Earth- and space-based telescopes, the asteroid appears as a fuzzy blur. What scientists do know, from radar data, is that it’s shaped somewhat like a potato and that it spins on its side.

Psyche Mission:

●      The Psyche mission is a journey to a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the Sun between Mars and JupiterHence statement (1) is correct.

●      What makes the asteroid Psyche unique is that it appears to be the exposed nickel-iron core of an early planet, one of the building blocks of our solar system.

●      Deep within rocky, terrestrial planets – including Earth – scientists infer the presence of metallic cores, but these lie unreachable far below the planets’ rocky mantles and crusts.

●      Because we cannot see or measure Earth’s core directly, Psyche offers a unique window into the violent history of collisions and accretion that created terrestrial planets.

Science Goals:

●      Understand a previously unexplored building block of planet formation: iron cores. 

●      Look inside terrestrial planets, including Earth, by directly examining the interior of a differentiated body, which otherwise could not be seen.

●      Explore a new type of world. For the first time, examine a world made not of rock and ice, but metal. 

Source: https://scitechdaily.com/how-nasas-psyche-mission-will-explore-an-unknown-world-we-can-barely-pinpoint-from-earth/

9. Consider the following statements:

1)   A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a prehistoric structure or monument either alone or together with other stones.

2)   Megaliths are spread across the Indian subcontinent.

3)   The majority of megalithic sites are found in Peninsular India,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)    3 only

b)   2 and 3 only

c)    1 and 2 only

d)   1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Rare black rock art depictions found in Kurnool village

●      The drawings reportedly dateg back to the Megalithic Period and early Historical period

●      Rare black stick-like drawings of human beings have been found in two caves at Paibogula village in Kurnool district close to the Kundu River.

●      Rock art in various places in the district and Kadapa for a long time, chanced upon these drawings dating back to the Megalithic Period (1500 to 500 BC) and early Historical period (500 BC to 600 AD).

●      These are very unique findings in Andhra Pradesh, he opines and the majority of the depictions were of human figures or stick figures (representation of humans by stick-like drawings). The drawings depict a confident standing human with his left hand on his waist; a human with a trident-shaped weapon in his right hand; a bird that appears to be a pea-hen; and a human clutching a shield in his left hand.

●      The second shelter (Gurrala Padah or cave of horses), is located about 500 metres south of the village on the bank of a brook called Palle Pullamma Sela, which joins Kudu river. This shelter measures 19 metres in length from East to West and 11 metres from North to South.

Megalith:

●      A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or together with other stonesHence statement (1) is correct.

●      In India, archaeologists trace the majority of the megaliths to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC), though some sites precede the Iron Age, extending up to 2000 BC.

●      Megaliths are spread across the Indian subcontinent. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●      The majority of megalithic sites are found in Peninsular India, concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Hence statement (3) is correct.

●      Megaliths in India are dated before 3000 BC, with recent findings dated back to 5000 BC in southern India. Megaliths are found in almost all parts of southern India.

●      There is also a broad time evolution with the megaliths in central India and the upper Indus valley where the oldest megaliths are found, while those in the east are of much later date.

●      In India, megaliths of all kinds are noted; these vary from Menhirs, Rock-cut burial, chamber tomb, dolmens, stone alignment, stone circles and anthropomorphic figures.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/rare-black-rock-art-depictions-found-in-kurnool-village/article38051299.ece

10. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of

a)    glaciers

b)   mangrove areas

c)    Ramsar sites

d)   saline lakes

Answer: (d) Saline lakes

Explanation:

Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are names of towns with or near saline lakes. Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It also has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan. Kuchaman lake occupies an area of about 8.5 sq. kms in Nagaur District of Rajasthan. Hence option (d) is correct.