1. With reference to SauriaPaharia community in India, consider the following statements:
1) They live mostly in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
2) They are listed in the category of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
3) They depend mainly on mixed farming of millet, corn and other crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: A primitive tribe and rare fossils threatened by stone mining in Jharkhand
● Rampant stone quarrying in the Rajmahal hills of Jharkhand has raised concerns on its impact on the indigenous communities living nearby.
● The impacts of mining activities affect the livelihood and habitation of Sauria Paharia, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), that lives on the hills. Hence statement (2) is correct.
● Rajmahal hosts some of the oldest fossils in the world and there is a need to protect the area
● Experts claim that after the Aravali hills, Rajmahal hills are perhaps among India’s oldest hills.
● Origin of these hills could be traced back to anywhere between 68 million years to 118 million years.
Rajmahal Hills:
● The Rajmahal Hills are located in the Santhal Pargana division of Jharkhand, India. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
● They were located on the northern margin of the Gondwana supercontinent, and it’s hills are today inhabited by the SauriaPaharia people whilst its valleys are dominated by the Santhal people.
● Volcanic activity during the Jurassic resulted in the formation of the Rajmahal Traps.
● The Rajmahal hills are named after the town of Rajmahal which lies in the eastern Jharkhand.
● The River Ganges wanders around the hills changing the direction of flow from east to south.
● Francis Buchanan-Hamilton travelled through the Rajmahal hills in the early 19th century. He described the hills that seemed impenetrable in a zone where few travellers had been.
SauriaPaharia:
● The SauriaPaharia tribe depends mainly on mixed farming of millet, corn and other crops. They practice shifting cultivation, called jhum. Hence statement (3) is correct.
● The SauriaPaharia people (also known as Maler Paharia) are a tribal people of Bangladesh and the Indian states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Bihar.
● They are found mostly in Santhal Parganas region in the Rajmahal Hills.
● According to Kurukh traditions, when they were driven out of their home in the Son valley, the main group migrated towards Palamu but a smaller group moved down the Gangetic valley till they reached Rajmahal Hills, where they settled mostly in Damin-i-koh.
● The language of the SauriaPaharias is closely linked to that of the Oraons.
● The Sauria Paharia mainly worship their ancestral spirits, known as JiweUrkkya (“the spirit that has left”), especially before sowing a new field.
● The Saurias also worship a group of spirits called Gosain.
Source: TH
2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Particularly vulnerable tribal group?
a) It is based on the Xaxa committee in 1973
b) 75 tribal groups have been categorized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
c) Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Andaman and Nicobar Island
d) Pre-agricultural level of technology, Low level of literacy, Economic backwardness and a declining or stagnant population are the criteria for identification of PVTGs
Answer: (d) Pre-agricultural level of technology, Low level of literacy, Economic backwardness and a declining or stagnant population are the criteria for identification of PVTGs
Explanation:
In NEWS: Surjagarh protest ends but mining projects to face opposition
● The agitation, ‘Thiya andolan’, against Surjagarh iron ore mining project held at Etapalli in south Gadchiroli ended on a peaceful note with the agitators submitting their representation to the sub-divisional magistrate (SDM) but they vowed to continue their opposition to 25 such mines sanctioned by the government in the district.
● The government agencies and other authorities must take cognizance of local population’s concerns regarding mining and take decision keeping in mind the issues of environment, bio-diversity, and especially the particularly vulnerable tribal group
Particularly vulnerable tribal group:
● In India, tribal population makes up for 8.6% of the total population. Tribal people live in about 15% of the geographical area of the country. The places they live vary from plains,forests, hills, inaccessible areas etc. PVTGs are scattered in different geographical areas of the country.
● In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, which are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
● PVTGs have some basic characteristics – they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc.
● 75 tribal groups have been categorized by the Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s.
● Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha.
Government of India follows the following criteria for identification of PVTGs.
● Pre-agricultural level of technology
● Low level of literacy
● Economic backwardness
● A declining or stagnant population. Hence option (d) is correct.
3. Consider the following statements regarding REDD+:
1) It is a mechanism developed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
2) It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India’s draft on REDD+ safeguards needs a relook
● India has released a draft document on the Safeguards Information System to reduce potential risks from the implementation of activities under the UN’s Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Degradation program (REDD+), a key climate change mitigation tool.
● The draft document is in compliance with India’s commitment to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
● Experts note the safeguard relies on forest and land use policies, legislations and rules that do not have a good track record of ensuring environmental justice and addressing biodiversity loss. A more robust framework to evaluate compliance is needed.
● As per the agreements, developing country Parties to the UNFCCC such as India, are required to create a Safeguards Information System (SIS) to report on compliance to the safeguards while implementing REDD+ activities.
● The National REDD+ Strategy of India endorses the adherence to Cancun safeguards during the implementation of REDD+ activities, states the draft document.
● The seven safeguards (called Cancun safeguards) articulated as per the Cancun Agreements at Cancun, Mexico, at the 2010 United Nations Climate Change Conference, need to be addressed and respected during the implementation of REDD+ activities to prevent any negative impacts of REDD+ actions on natural forests, biological diversity and local communities.
REDD+:
● Deforestation and forest degradation account for approximately 11 percent of carbon emissions, more than the entire global transportation sector and second only to the energy sector.
● It is now clear that in order to constrain the impacts of climate change within limits that society will reasonably be able to tolerate, global average temperatures must be stabilized within two degrees Celsius. This will be practically impossible to achieve without reducing emissions from the forest sector, in addition to other mitigation actions.
● Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
● It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development. Hence statement (2) is correct.
● Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions.
● REDD+ goes beyond simply deforestation and forest degradation and includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
Source: https://india.mongabay.com/2021/10/indias-draft-on-redd-safeguards-needs-a-relook/
4. Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers:
1) It is a flowing column of condensed water vapour in the atmosphere responsible for producing significant levels of rain and snow.
2) It occurs mainly in Northern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: California still deep in drought despite atmospheric river
The deluge California received from a powerful atmospheric river made streams and waterfalls come alive while coating mountains with snow
Atmospheric rivers:
● Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere – like rivers in the sky – that transport most of the water vapor outside of the tropics.
● These columns of vapor move with the weather, carrying an amount of water vapor roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River.
● When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapor in the form of rain or snow. Hence statement (1) is correct.
● Although atmospheric rivers come in many shapes and sizes, those that contain the largest amounts of water vapor and the strongest winds can create extreme rainfall and floods, often by stalling over watersheds vulnerable to flooding.
● These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property.
● A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
Atmospheric river classification scale ranks the storms from 1 to 5, similar to systems for categorizing hurricanes and tornadoes.
● Atmospheric River category 1 (AR1) and AR2 storms caused estimated damages under $1 million.
● AR4 and AR5 storms caused median damages in the 10s and 100s of millions of dollars respectively.
● The most damaging AR4s and AR5s generated impacts of over $1 billion per storm. These billion-dollar storms occurred every three to four years.
● The most significant finding was an exponential relationship between the intensity of atmospheric rivers and the flood damages they caused. Each increase in the scale from 1 to 5 was associated with a 10-fold increase in damages.
5. Consider the following statements regarding Golconda Fort:
1) It was built by the rulers of Vijayanagara dynasty.
2) It was fortified by both the Bahmani Sultans and Qutub Shahi dynasty.
3) Golconda flourished as a trade centre of large diamonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Tourism Ministry identifies three more iconic tourist destinations
● The aim is to upgrade facilities, infrastructure and connectivity to draw more visitors
● The Ministry of Tourism has added three more tourist destinations – Konark Sun Temple (Odisha), Kevadia (Gujarat) and Golconda Fort (Telangana) – to the current list of 17 iconic sites.
● “Konark and Kevadia have already been proposed by the Ministry and the third one is Golconda.
● All these proposed iconic sites are part of the UNESCO World Heritage List, they are popular among tourists and have decent footfall.
● The aim of the scheme is to develop these sites with better tourism infrastructure such as connectivity to the destinations, facilities for the tourists, involvement of the local community and its promotion.
Golconda Fort:
● Golconda Fort is located in the western part of Hyderabad city and is about 9 km from the Hussain Sagar Lake.
● It was originally known as Mankal, and built on a hilltop in the year 1143.
● The fort was built by the Kakatiya dynasty. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
● Because of the vicinity of diamond mines, especially Kollur Mine, Golconda flourished as a trade centre of large diamonds, known as the Golconda Diamonds. Hence statement (3) is correct.
● The region has produced some of the world’s most famous diamonds, including the colourless Koh-i-Noor (now owned by the United Kingdom), the blue Hope (United States), the pink Daria-i-Noor (Iran), the white Regent (France), the Dresden Green (Germany), and the colourless Orlov (Russia), Nizam and Jacob (India), as well as the now lost diamonds Florentine Yellow, Akbar Shah and Great Mogul.
● It was originally known as Mankal, and built on a hilltop in the year 1143.
● It was originally a mud fort under the reign of Rajah of Warangal.
● Later it was fortified between the 14th and 17th centuries by the Bahmani Sultans and then by the Qutub Shahi dynasty. Golconda was the principal capital of the Qutub Shahi kings. Hence statement (2) is correct.
● The inner fort contains ruins of palaces, mosques and a hilltop pavilion, which rises about 130 meters high and gives a bird’s eye view of other buildings.
6. Consider the following statements:
1) The Azad Hind government had its own court, civil code and currency.
2) The provisional capital of the Azad Hind Government was Singapore.
3) The first Azad Hind Government was formed under Mohan Singh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Netaji’s Azad Hind Government
Press Information Bureau (PIB) Bhubaneswar in association with the Language, Literature and Culture Department, Government of Odisha organised a joint press conference at Netaji Birth Place Museum on the anniversary of the formation of Netaji’s Azad Hind Government
Azad Hind Government:
● On October 21, 1943 Netaji had announced the formation of the Azad Hind Government which started functioning from Singapore with 11 ministers and eight representatives from the Indian National Army. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.
● Bose announcing the Proclamation of the formation of the Provisional Government of Azad Hind at Cathay Building
● Bose was convinced that armed struggle was the only way to achieve independence for India. It drew ex- prisoners and thousands of civilian volunteers from the Indian expatriate population in Malaya (present-day Malaysia) and Burma (now Myanmar).
● The Azad Hind government had its own court, civil code and currency. Hence statement (1) is correct.
● Its provisional capital was Port Blair, while its capital-in-exile was Rangoon and Singapore. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
Under the provisional government:
● Bose was the head of the state, the prime minister and the minister for war and foreign affairs.
● Captain Lakshmi headed the women’s organisation.
● S A Ayer headed the publicity and propaganda wing.
● Rash Behari Bose was designated as the supreme advisor.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1766409
7. Consider the following statements:
1) Infant mortality rate is the number of deaths per 1,000 live births of children under one year of age.
2) The infant mortality rate decreased in all the States of India between 2014 and 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: The highs and lows in States’ infant mortality rate rankings
● The infant mortality rate (IMR, deaths per 1,000 live births of children under one year of age) improved in all the States between 2014 and 2019. Hence statement (1) is correct and statement (2) is correct.
● However, wide variations exist among the States in the pace of decline. It is important to note that States with a relatively low IMR to start with find it difficult to improve, while States with a relatively high IMR find it easier to do so. Thus, reduction of IMR in terms of absolute value cannot be used to gauge the performance of the States.
● Therefore, the IMR of all the States were compared with 185 countries and their global ranks were computed. In 2019, Kerala fared the best with an IMR of 6 and a global ranking of 53 (52 of 185 countries had a better IMR). Kerala improved 21 places from its 2014 global ranking.
● In 2019, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh had relatively poor IMRs — 41 and 46, respectively, similar to Sudan, Afghanistan, and Niger. Their global ranks in 2019 fell by one and two places from 2014, respectively.
● The tables list the IMR of major States and the rank of the State among 185 countries in 2009, 2014 and 2019. For instance, in 2019, Haryana’s IMR was 27 and its global rank was 143.
8. Consider the following statements regarding International Court of Justice:
1) The judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal.
2) It has jurisdiction to try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity.
3) It is the only UN organ not located in the USA.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The story of an unprecedented diplomatic win
Syed Akbaruddin was India’s Permanent Representative to the UN when India scored an unprecedented diplomatic victory in 2017 by defeating UK for a seat on the International Court of Justice.
ICJ:
● ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946.
● It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Seated in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ is the only principal UN organ not located in New York City. Hence statement (3) is correct.
● The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately.
● In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
● In order to ensure a measure of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years and Judges are eligible for re-election.
● ICJ is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
● Unlike other organs of international organizations, the Court is not composed of representatives of governments. Members of the Court are independent judges whose first task, before taking up their duties, is to make a solemn declaration in open court that they will exercise their powers impartially and conscientiously.
● The ICJ only has jurisdiction based on consent, not compulsory jurisdiction.
● It does not enjoy a full separation of powers, with permanent members of the Security Council being able to veto enforcement of cases, even those to which they consented to be bound.
● It has no jurisdiction to try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity. As it is not a criminal court, it does not have a prosecutor able to initiate proceedings. It is done by ICC. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
● The judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal (at the most it may be subject to interpretation or, upon the discovery of a new fact, revision). Hence statement (1) is correct.
9. Consider the following statements:
1) Under the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946 only Foreigner Tribunals have the right to declare a person as a foreigner.
2) The Foreigner Tribunal has the powers of a civil court while trying a suit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Assam overshoots detention camp deadline
● The Assam Government has overshot a 45-day deadline set by the Gauhati High Court for the completion of a standalone detention centre for declared foreigners.
● The court had on August 11 asked the State Government to complete the construction of the detention centre, now called transit camp, at Matia in western Assam’s Goalpara district and file a status report within 45 days.
● A declared foreigner is a person marked by Foreigners’ Tribunals (FTs) in Assam, allegedly failing to prove their citizenship after the State police’s Border wing marks him or her as an illegal immigrant.
Foreigners Tribunal:
● Foreigners’ Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies established as per the Foreigners Tribunal Order, 1964 and the Foreigners’ Act, 1946.
● It is for those who have been left out in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) list or have been marked as ‘D’ meaning doubtful.
● Under the provisions of the Foreigners’ Act, 1946 only Foreigner Tribunals have the right to declare a person as a foreigner. Hence statement (1) is correct.
● Non-inclusion of a person’s name in the NRC does not by itself amount to him/her being declared a foreigner.
The powers of the Tribunal have been laid down
● The Tribunal has the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Hence statement (2) is correct.
● It can summon and ask for the attendance of any person and examine him/her on oath.
● It can ask anyone to produce the required documents.
● The Tribunal can commission examining any witness, as and when required.
10. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
1) It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2) It is the only circular temple built in India.
3) It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4) Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
Explanation:
The Chausath Yogini temple is in Morena district 40 kilometres from Gwalior. According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (1055 – 1075). Hence statement (1) is correct.
The cells and the main shrine are flat topped, but it is believed that initially each had a shikhara on top. While the 64 Yoginis originally placed in the 64 subsidiary shrines are now missing, a Shiva linga has taken their places in each cell. The central shrine also holds a Shivalinga.
The uniqueness of this Yogini temple is its circular shape that is popularly believed to have inspired the design of the Indian Parliament. The circular shape is likely to have represented a SriYantra in which the Yoginis reside, with the Supreme Yogini or Maha Sakti residing in the centre (represented by the circular central main shrine). It is not the only circular temple built in India. Hence statements (2) and (3) are incorrect and statement (4) is correct.
