Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme
- It is a five-year action plan launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
- The tentative national level target of 20%–30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024 is proposed under the NCAP
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:NGT slams Ministry’s report on clean air programme
- The NGT disapproved the submission of the MoEF that a committee, upon further deliberation, has concluded that 20-30% pollutant reduction under the NCAP seems realistic.
- It said that the stand of MoEF that pollution cannot be controlled except to the extent of certain percent is against Constitutional and statutory mandate.
- The Right to Clean Air stood recognized as part of Right to Life and failure to address air pollution is a denial of Right to Life under Article 21.
About National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
- It was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change(MoEFCC).It is a five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year. Hence statement 1 is correct .
- The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
- Goal of NCAP is to meet the prescribed annual average ambient air quality standards at all locations in the country in a stipulated timeframe. The tentative national level target of 20%–30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024 is proposed under the NCAP taking 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.Hence statement 2 is correct
- The plan includes 102 non-attainment cities, across 23 states and Union territories, which were identified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on the basis of their ambient air quality data between 2011 and 2015.
- Non-attainment cities: These are those that have fallen short of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for over five years.
Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal
- It has been established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010
- The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.
- It has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife(Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:NGT slams Ministry’s report on clean air programme
National Green Tribunal has slammed the Ministry of Environment over its report on the National Clean Air Programme(NCAP) which proposes 20-30% reduction of air pollution by 2024.
About National Green Tribunal
- The NGT has been established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.Hence statement 1 is correct
- The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
- The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
- The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is currently 10 expert members and 10 judicial members although the act allows for up to 20 of each.
- The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.Hence statement 2 is correct
- Each bench of the NGT will comprise of at least one Judicial Member and one Expert Member.
- New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other 4 place of sitting of the Tribunal.
- NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife(Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation etc.Hence statement 3 is incorrect
Consider the following statements regarding National Honey mission
- It is aimed at creating employment for the Adivasis, farmers, unemployed youth, and women by roping them in beekeeping
- It was launched by the KVIC
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Honey Mission Propels Self-Employment for Migrant Workers; 700 bee boxes distributed in Western UP
- Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has taken a big leap towards “Aatmanirbhar Bharat” by creating local employment for migrant workers through its flagship “Honey Mission” program.
About Honey Mission
- It was launched in August 2017 in line with PM Narendra Modi’s call for ‘Sweet Revolution’ (revolution in production of honey to increase its production) in 2016 while introducing Banas Honey project at Deesa in Gujarat.
- Itwas launched by KVIC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Mission aimed at creating employment for the Adivasis, farmers, unemployed youth, and women by roping them in beekeeping while also increasing India’s honey production.Hence statement 1 is correct
- It also aims to promote beekeeping for increasing the crop productivity and pollination services avenue for beekeepers and farmers.
Under this mission KVIC provides beekeepers
- Practical training about examination of honeybee colonies.
- Acquaintance with apicultural equipments.
- Identification and management of bee enemies and diseases.
- Honey extraction and wax purification.
- Management of bee colonies in spring, summer, monsoon, autumn and winter seasons.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1648488
Consider the following statementsregarding the 6th Schedule of the Constitution
- It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population
- It is provided under Article 244(2) of the Constitution.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Arunachal’s BJP govt wants state placed under Sixth Schedule
- BJP-led government in Arunachal Pradesh wants the state to be placed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. A resolution to this effect is likely to be tabled in the state assembly on Thursday.
- The Sixth Schedule, besides giving considerable autonomy to the tribal community, empowers the state to enact laws for land protection.
- As Arunachal Pradesh is under the Fifth Schedule that does not provide special rights for the indigenous communities, unlike the Sixth Schedule.
What is Sixth Schedule?
- The 6th Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.Hence statement 2 is correct
- The 6th schedule areas remain within executive authority of the state.
- The tribal areas in the 6th Schedule area have been constituted as autonomous districts and these autonomous districts have been given degrees of autonomy within the State Legislature.
- The tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
- They do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
- The tribals are given freedom to exercise legislative and executive powers through an Autonomous Regional Council and Autonomous District Councils
- Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
Consider the following statements regarding Glanders disease
- It is a contagious zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in cows and monkeys.
- It is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:HC seeks govt. response on PETA plea
- The Delhi High Court sought response of the city government on an application by People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA), seeking to implement the Prevention and Control of Infectious and Contagious Diseases in Animals Act, 2009, to prevent spread of glanders disease among horses, mules, ponies and donkeys here.
- Glanders is a schedule disease under the Act and statutory provisions have to be adhered by respondent no. 8 [Delhi government] once it is found that glanders is present in the horse.
Glanders disease:
- Glanders is a contagious zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in horses, mules, and donkeys.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei, usually by ingestion of contaminated feed or water.Hence statement 2 is correct
- B. mallei is able to infect humans, so is classed as a zoonotic agent.
- Transmission occurs by direct contact with infected animals and entry is through skin abrasions, nasal and oral mucosal surfaces, or by inhalation.
- Glanders is endemic in Africa, Asia, the Middle East, and Central and South America.
- It has been eradicated from North America, Australia, and most of Europe through surveillance and destruction of affected animals, and import restrictions.
Consider the following statements
- Earth’s inner core is the innermost geologic layer of the Earth.
- Earth’s inner core is mostly made of iron and is in the liquid state due to extreme pressure.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Earth’s inner core is older than previously determined, find researchers
- Researchers have revised the estimate of the age of Earth’s solid inner core to 1-1.3 billion years from 565 million years old.
- A year ago, Nature Geosciences had reported inner core was only about 565 million years old — quite young compared to the age of our 4.5-billion-year-old planet.
- The research to re-determine the age of the core has shed light on several other interesting attributes, such as the process of heat convection of the iron core and the energy sources that power geodynamo that sustains magnetic field.
- Earth’s inner core is the innermost geologic layer of the Earth — it is made of iron and is solid. And it is very hot — about 6,000 degrees Celsius. The outer core is also iron, but is liquid due to relatively lower pressure.Hence statement 1 is correct and Hence statement 2 is incorrect
Geodynamo:
- As lighter elements rise through the liquid iron of the outer core at different temperatures, they cause convection currents.
- The circulation of liquid metal creates electric currents (kinetic energy is converted into magnetic energy) and turns Earth into a giant electromagnet.
- This is how Earth’s magnetic field is generated and the process is called geodynamo which is fed by convection.
- The age of the inner core, has been essentially calculated by the effectiveness of iron to transfer heat, known as thermal conductivity.
Which of the following state are not come under the Inner Line Permit system?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Nagaland
- Manipur
- Assam
Answer: (d) Assam
Explanation:
In NEWS:Arunachal’s BJP govt wants state placed under Sixth Schedule
- Even the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) exempts the Sixth Schedule areas and the Inner Line permit areas. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur are under ILP, while there are 10 areas under the Sixth Schedule in Northeast India.
- Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR) Act of 1873 prohibits all citizens of India from entering Arunachal without a valid ILP.
About Inner Line Permit:
- Inner Line Permit is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
- By the ILP, government aims to regulate movement to certain areas located near the international border of India.
- The system is in force in four North-eastern states — Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram — and no Indian citizen can visit any of these states unless he or she belongs to that state, nor can he or she overstay beyond the period specified in the ILP.Hence option (d) is correct
- An ILP is issued by the state government concerned.
- The ILP was warranted by the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act of 1873.It can be obtained by applying online or directly from the government office.
Export Preparedness Index is released by
Export Promotion Council
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
World Trade Organisation
Niti Aayog
Answer: (d) NITI Aayog
Explanation:
In NEWS:NITI Aayog releases report on Export Preparedness Index; Gujarat tops list
- Gujarat has topped the Niti Aayog’s Export Preparedness Index 2020 followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu in the second and third place respectively, according to the government think tank’s report.Hence option (d) is correct
- Niti Aayog in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness released the first Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020.
- The index ranked states on four key parameters – policy; business ecosystem; export ecosystem; export performance.
- According to the report released on Wednesday, six coastal states — Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Karnataka and Kerala — feature in the top ten rankings, indicating the presence of strong enabling and facilitating factors to promote exports.
- Among the land locked states, Rajasthan was the top performer followed by Telangana and Haryana. In the category of Himalayan states, Uttarakhand topped the list followed by Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.
- On policy parameters, Maharashtra topped the index followed by Gujarat and Jharkhand, while on business ecosystem parameter, Gujarat was ranked number one followed by Delhi and Tamil Nadu.In the export ecosystem parameter, Maharashtra topped the Index followed by Odisha and Rajasthan and on the export performance parameter, Mizoram led the index, followed by Gujarat and Maharashtra.
- The report says that the 70% of exports of India are dominated by five states namely Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Telangana. Most of the states performed well on transport connectivity, exports diversification and infrastructure.
Consider the following statements regarding Puli kali
- It is a ritual event in the state of Kerala
- It is performed on the fourth day of Onam.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Pulikkali to go online this Onam
- Pulikkali is an inevitable part of Onam Celebrations in Thrissur. The hallmark street pageant of the cultural capital will bring the curtains down for the Onam celebrations.
- The street pageant of Thrissur will be an online-only affair this year due to COVID-19
About Pulikali (Tiger Dance)
- Pulikali (Tiger Dance) is one among the folk art forms of Kerala. The term Pulikkali literally means ‘play of the tigers’.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- ShakthanTampuran was who introduced Pulikkali, more than two centuries ago as a street art form.
- The art is performed on the fourth day of Onam. Performers are painted like tigers with stripes of yellow, red and black and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku and chenda and wear leopard or tiger masks.Hence statement 2 is correct
- A particular combination of Tempra Powder and varnish or enamel is used to make the paint and is said to be extremely hard to remove.
- The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting with participants playing the role of tiger and hunter.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/pulikkali-to-go-online-this-onam/article32444321.ece
The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the
- Banks Board Bureau
- Reserve Bank of India
- Union Ministry of Finance
- Management of concerned bank
Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau
Explanation:
- Banks Board Bureau recommends for selection of heads – Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions and helps banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.Hence option (a) is correct
