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Daily Prelims Test – 26_January_2022

1. With respect to Justice Clock, Consider the following statements:

1)  It will display data from the National Judicial Data Grid.

2)  It will be an outdoor display LED wall within the court premises to display disposal and pendency of cases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained: Gujarat HC’s ‘Justice Clock’ and other digital initiatives

●     The Justice Clock will exhibit vital statistics of the justice delivery system in Gujarat, to ‘maximise outreach and visibility’.

●     Supreme Court e-Committee chairperson and SC judge Justice DY Chandrachud on Monday inaugurated two digital services for Gujarat High Court — a ‘Justice Clock’, and electronic payment of court fee.

What is the ‘Justice Clock’?

●     An LED display of 7 feet by 10 feet, placed at a height of 17 feet from the ground, has been erected at a busy crossroad near the Gujarat High Court premises.

●     This ‘Justice Clock’ will exhibit vital statistics of the justice delivery system in Gujarat, to “maximise outreach and visibility” of the work done by the state judiciary.

●     The interface has been designed and developed in-house and will display data from the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) in real-time. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     A similar format of Gujarat judiciary-related statistics will also be available on the Gujarat HC website under a tab of ‘Virtual Justice Clock’, accessible to all.

●     The physical LED display as well as the virtual justice clock — is aimed at greater accessibility and transparency. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

What is an e-court fee and how will it help?

●     While the online e-Courts fee system was already available for the Gujarat High Court, which was tested on a pilot basis allowing advocates and parties to procure judicial stamps online through electronic payment and upon submission of a PDF receipt, this platform now stands expanded to all district and taluka courts.

●     The payment platform is of StockHolding Corporation of India Ltd (SHCIL) as empanelled by the Gujarat government.

●     A PDF receipt of the fee paid will be generated and submitted to the court registry concerned.

●     It will then be verified from within the digital case information system and locked as ‘consumed’, wherein the receipt will be defaced, so as to avoid its reuse or misuse.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-gujarat-hcs-justice-clock-and-other-digital-initiatives-7733994/

2. Recently, the Vision Document 2.0 released by which of the following ministries in India?

a)   Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology

b)  Ministry of Defence

c)   Ministry of Home Affairs

d)  Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Answer: (a) Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology

Explanation:

In NEWS: India’s electronics manufacturing and exports can reach $300 billion by 2025-26: MeitY-ICEA

●     Vision Document 2.0 released by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology as a 5-year roadmap and Vision Document for the electronics sector, titled “$300 bn Sustainable Electronics Manufacturing & Exports by 2026.” Hence option (a) is correct.

●     This roadmap is the second volume of a two-part Vision Document – the first of which titled “Increasing India’s Electronics Exports and Share in GVCs” was released in November 2021.

●     This report provides a year-wise break-up and production projections for the various products that will lead India’s transformation into a US$300 billion electronics manufacturing powerhouse, from the current US$75 billion.

●     Amongst the key products that are expected to lead India’s growth in electronics manufacturing include Mobile Phones, IT Hardware (laptops, tablets), Consumer electronics (TV and audio), Industrial electronics, Auto electronics, Electronic components, LED Lighting, Strategic electronics, PCBA, Wearables and hearables, and Telecom equipment.

●     Mobile manufacturing that is expected to cross US$100 billion annual production – up from the current US$30 billion – is expected to constitute nearly 40% of this ambitious growth.

●     The domestic market is expected to increase from US$65 billion to US$180 billion over the next 5 years. This will make electronics amongst India’s 2-3 top ranking exports by 2026. Of the US$300 billion, exports are expected to increase from the projected US$15 billion in 2021-22 to US$120 billion by 2026.

●     It confirms that there is a real opportunity in the electronics sector, driven by 2 factors: growth of digital consumption and growth and diversification of global value chains.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-can-make-300-bn-electronics-by-2026/article38320653.ece

3. Consider the following statements:

1)  Republic Day marks the adoption of the constitution of India.

2)  The constitutional Provisions of citizenship, elections and parliament came into effect On January 26, 1950

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Republic Day 2022: History, significance, why the day is celebrated and all you need to know

●     Republic Day marks the adoption of the constitution of India and the transition of the country to a republic on January 26, 1950. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     The Constituent Assembly, meant to draft the Constitution of India, held its first session on December 9, 1946. The last assembly session ended on November 26, 1949, and then the Constitution was adopted a year later.

●     Republic Day commemorates the spirit of independent and individual India. It was on this day in 1930 when the Indian National Congress proclaimed Purna Swaraj, the declaration of India’s independence from colonial rule.

●     Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect.

●     The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the date of its commencement’, and celebrated as the Republic Day.

●     January 26 was specifically chosen as the ‘date of commencement’ of the Constitution because of its historical importance. It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated, following the resolution of the Lahore Session (December 1929) of the INC.

●     With the commencement of the Constitution, the Indian Independence Act of 1947 and the Government of India Act of 1935, with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, were repealed. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act (1949) was however continued.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/lifestyle/ananya-panday-flaunts-her-curves-in-red-bodycon-dress-for-gehraiyaan-promotions-101643121356023-4.html

4. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Preamble’:

1)  The Preamble explains the objectives of the Constitution.

2)  It embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values.

3)  It was adopted on 26 January 1950.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 and 2 only

b)  2 only

c)   3 only

d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Republic Day 2022: Full text of Preamble to the Constitution of India

●     January 26th is significant for the country’s political history as it is the day when the country formally adopted its constitution in 1950.

●     January 26th is significant for the country’s political history as it is the day when the country formally adopted its constitution in 1950. It replaced the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India and thus, turning the nation into a newly formed republic.

What is Preamble to the Constitution of India?

●     The Preamble to the Constitution of India is an introductory statement that presents the key principles of the Constitution.

●     It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950, celebrated as the Republic day in India. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect.

●     The Preamble, in brief, explains the objectives of the Constitution. It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     The question as to whether the Preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution arose for the first time in the historic Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).

●     It was urged that the Preamble cannot be amended as it is not a part of the Constitution. The petitioner contended that the amending power in Article 368 cannot be used to destroy or damage the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution, which are enshrined in the Preamble.

●     The Supreme Court, however, held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The Court stated that the Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’.

●     In other words, the Court held that the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

●     The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words- Socialist, Secular and Integrity-to the Preamble.

●     The Preamble embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values political, moral and religious on which the Constitution is based.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/republic-day-2022-full-text-of-preamble-to-the-constitution-of-india-101642929406796.html

5. Consider the following statements about preamble of Indian constitution:

1)  The term ‘Republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the President.

2)  The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the narrower sense representing only political democracy

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Republic

●     A democratic polity can be classified into two categories-monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, eg, Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, eg, USA.

●     Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

Democracy

●     A democratic polity, as is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that stipulated in the Preamble, is, possession of supreme power by the people.

●     Democracy is of two types direct and indirect.

●     In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland. There are four devices of direct democracy, namely,Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite .

●     In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws.

●     This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds-parliamentary and presidential.

●     The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/republic-day-2022-full-text-of-preamble-to-the-constitution-of-india-101642929406796.html

6. Consider the following statements:

1)  Lokpal and Lokayukta is a concept originated in India.

2)  Lokayukta at the state level was suggested by the Administrative Reforms commission, 1966.

3)  Lokayukta has a fixed tenure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 and 2 only

b)  2 only

c)   2 and 3 only

d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Kerala govt decides to bring Ordinance to clip Lokayukta powers

In a move that has drawn criticism from the Opposition, the CPI(M)-led Kerala government has decided to bring an Ordinance to amend the Kerala Lokayukta Act in a manner that gives it powers to reject the report of the anti-corruption ombudsman.

Lokayukta:

●     The Lokayukta is an authority at state level which deals with corruption and mal-admistration complaints made by the general public.

●     The State of Maharashtra became the first state to introduce the institution of Lokayukta in the year 1971 through the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta act

●     The Lokayukta has a fixed tenure and has to make sure to perform the given functions independently and impartially. Hence, statement (3) is correct.

●     Lokpal and Lokayukta are not of Indian origin. The concept of ombudsman originated in 1809 with the official inauguration of the institution of Ombudsman in Sweden. Hence, statement (1) is incorrect.

●     Further, Dr. L. M. Singhvi coined the term Lokpal and Lokayukta. Later in the year 1966, the First Administrative Reform Commission passed recommendations regarding the setting up of two independent authorities at the central and at the state level. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/kerala-lokayukta-row-at-national-level-cpm-always-sought-strong-anti-corruption-ombudsman-7741442/

7. Consider the following statements regarding corporate tax:

1)  It is the tax which is levied on the income of the domestic and foreign companies that arose in India.

2)  It is levied on both the public and private companies registered under the Companies Act of 2013.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Corporate tax this fiscal likely to exceed Budget Estimates by 19% Direct, indirect tax revenues have been a bright spot for Centre in FY22

●     After two years of shortfall, corporate tax collections in 2021-22 (FY22) are set to cross budgeted targets by quite a margin. The Revised Estimates (RE) for corporation tax in the current fiscal year could be around Rs 6.5 trillion.

Corporate tax:

●     Corporate tax is the tax which is levied on the income of the domestic and foreign companies that arose in India. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     It is levied on both the public and private companies registered under the Companies Act of 2013. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

●     The rate at which the tax is imposed as per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is known as the Corporate Tax Rate.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/budget/article/corporate-tax-this-fiscal-likely-to-exceed-budget-estimates-by-19-122012100044_1.html

8. Which of the following was/were the causes for decline in Harappan civilisation?

a)   Increase in the aridity

b)  Ecological changes

c)   Repeated Floods

d)  All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Explanation:

In NEWS: Distorting history through a calendar

●     By propagating false narratives on Indian ancestry, the IITs are damaging their standing

●     The evidence informs us that the pre-Indian state’s civilizational beginnings are associated with the Harappans, the earliest settlers and belonging to a greater Indus Valley Civilization, whose culture extends from 7,000 to 2,000 BCE.

●     The remnants of their settlements are located around the Indus River, Kutch, Saurashtra and parts of Balochistan and the Makran Coast.

●     Engaged in agriculture and trade, they were adept at designing well-laid-out townships with a good system of water management. They used bullock-drawn carts.

Reasons for decline

●     The Indus Valley Civilization declined around 1800 BCE, and scholars debate which factors resulted in the civilization’s demise.

●     One theory suggested that a nomadic, Indo-European tribe called the Aryans invaded and conquered the Indus Valley Civilization, though more recent evidence tends to contradict this claim.

●     Many scholars believe that the collapse of the Indus Valley Civilization was caused by climate change.

●     Some experts believe the drying of the Saraswati River, which began around 1900 BCE, was the main cause for climate change, while others conclude that a great flood struck the area.

●     Many scholars argue that changes in river patterns caused the large civilization to break up into smaller communities called late Harappan cultures.

●     Slowly declined as a result of increasing aridity and declining summer rainfall. Hence option (d) is correct.

●     Another disastrous change in the Harappan climate might have been eastward-moving monsoons, or winds that bring heavy rains.

●     Monsoons can be both helpful and detrimental to a climate, depending on whether they support or destroy vegetation and agriculture.

●     By 1800 BCE, the Indus Valley climate grew cooler and drier, and a tectonic event may have diverted or disrupted river systems, which were the lifelines of the Indus Valley Civilization.

●     The Harappans may have migrated toward the Ganges basin in the east, where they could have established villages and isolated farms. These small communities would not have been able to produce the same agricultural surpluses to support large cities.

●     With the reduced production of goods, there would have been a decline in trade with Egypt and Mesopotamia. By around 1700 BCE, most of the Indus Valley Civilization cities had been abandoned

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/distorting-history-through-a-calendar/article38325449.ece

9. Consider the following statements regarding Article 341 of the Indian Constitution:

1)  It gives the president the power to notify which castes in the country should come under the scheduled castes category.

2)  It gives power to the Parliament made by law to include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Centre mulls panel to explore Scheduled Caste benefits for Muslim, Christian dalits

●     While Hindu, Sikh and Buddhist Dalits enjoy SC status, those from Christian or Muslim communities do not, as per presidential order issued under Article 341 of the Constitution in 1950 and amendments thereafter.

●     The Centre has been of the view that SC status was linked to practice of untouchability, which was prevalent only in Hinduism. Later, amendments were made to include Sikhs and Buddhists. However, Muslim and Christian Dalits were not included.

●     The Centre is exploring formation of a national panel to examine whether Dalits converted to Christianity should be given Scheduled Caste status. An inter-ministerial discussion is underway to elicit views on the proposal to set up a ‘National Commission on Scheduled Caste Converts to Other Religions’ under the Commission of Inquiries Act, 1952

●     Article 341(1) of the Indian Constitution gives the president the power to notify which castes in the country, and in specific states come under the category of Scheduled Castes. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     According to Article 341 (2), the Parliament by law can include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/centre-mulls-panel-to-explore-scheduled-caste-benefits-for-muslim-christian-dalits/articleshow/89104198.cms?from=mdr

10. With reference to street – lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?

1)  Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.

2)  As street -lights, sodium lamps have a longer lifespan than LED lamps.

3)  The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street – lighting.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a)   3 only

b)  2 only

c)   1 and 3 only

d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

●     LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology. There are several reasons for this to include the fact they waste very little energy in the form of infrared radiation (much different than most conventional lights to include fluorescent lights), and they emit light directionally (over 180 degrees versus 360 degrees which means there are far fewer losses from the need to redirect or reflect light). Hence, statement (1) is correct.

●     Sodium -based lamps produce visible light directly but also in a very narrow frequency range (yellow -orange) so that objects of other colors appear as shades of grey. Such light is referred to as monochromatic. Sodium lamps are coated with indium tin oxide which permits visible light to exit but infrared radiation (heat) to be reflected back. Whereas a very broad spectrum of color rendering index (CRI) is available with LEDs ranging generally from 65 -95. Hence, statement (3) is correct.

●     In some areas (e.g. lifespan) sodium lamps are drastically inferior to LEDs. The extremely low maintenance and replacement costs with LEDs is actually a major cost benefit over the long term. LED lifespan can be greater than 100,000 hours, i.e more than 4 times than sodium lamps. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect.