1.Consider the following statements regardingGovernment e-Marketplace (GeM)
- It is the National Public Procurement Portal for providing procurement of goods and services required by Central & State Government organizations.
- It operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Signalling intent: On Government e-Marketplace
- The Centre’s decision to make it mandatory for vendors on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) procurement platform to specify the country of origin of new products listed by them is on the face of it unexceptionable, aimed as it is at promoting India-made goods.
- The Centre’s move with its GeM portal has also predictably kindled and amplified a gathering clamour for the identification and subsequent boycott of Chinese products including on private e-commerce platforms.
- The move follows a series of decisions taken by the Central government to promote local suppliers across various sectors.
Government e-Marketplace (GeM):
- GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal to facilitate online procurement of Goods & Services required by various Central and State Government Departments / Organizations /Public SectorUndertakings (PSUs). Hence statements 1 is correct
- It was launched in 2016 to bring transparency and efficiency in the government buying process.
- GeM provides tools for Direct Purchase, bidding and reverse auction for efficient procurement.
- It operates under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statements 2 is incorrect
- The purchases through GeM by government users have been authorized and made mandatory by Ministry of Finance by adding a new Rule No. 149 in the General Financial Rules, 2017.
2.Consider the following statements regarding Purchasing power parity
- It is a popular metric used by macroeconomic analysts that compares different countries’ currencies through a basket of goods approach.
- Recently, India became the second largest economy in terms of PPP.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Purchasing Power Parities and the size of Indian Economy: Results from the 2017 International Comparison Program
- The World Bank has released new Purchasing Power Parities for reference year 2017, under International Comparison Program, that adjust for differences in the cost of living across economies of the World. Globally 176 economies participated in 2017 cycle of ICP.
- Purchasing power parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one dollar would buy in the US.
- Purchasing power parity (PPP) is a popular metric used by macroeconomic analysts that compares different countries’ currencies through a “basket of goods” approach. Hence statements 1 is correct
- Purchasing power parity (PPP) allows for economists to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries.
- In 2017, India retained and consolidated its global position, as the third largest economy, accounted for 6.7 percent ($8,051 billion outof World total of $119,547 billion) of global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in terms of PPPs as against China (16.4%) and United States (16.3%), respectively. Hence statements 2 is incorrect
- India is also third largest economy in terms of its PPP-based share in global Actual Individual Consumption and Global Gross Capital Formation.
3.Consider the following statements regardingInternational Comparison Program (ICP)
- It is managed by the World Bank under the auspices of the United Nations Statistical Commission
- It is an objective to producing Purchasing Power Parities which are vital for converting measures of economic activities to be comparable across economies.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Purchasing Power Parities and the size of Indian Economy: Results from the 2017 International Comparison Program
- The Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) of Indian Rupee per US$ at Gross Domestic Product (GDP) level is now 20.65 in 2017 from 15.55 in 2011. The Exchange Rate of US Dollar to Indian Rupee is now 65.12 from 46.67 during same period.
- The Price Level Index (PLI)—the ratio of a PPP to its corresponding market exchange rate—is used to compare the price levels of economies, of India is 47.55 in 2017 from 42.99 in 2011.
About International Comparison Program (ICP)
- The ICP is one of the largest statistical initiatives in the world.
- It is managed by the World Bank under the auspices of the United Nations Statistical Commission, and relies on a partnership of international, regional, sub-regional, and national agencies working under a robust governance framework and following an established statistical methodology. Hence statements 1 is correct
- India has participated in almost all ICP rounds since its inception in 1970. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is National Implementing Agency (NIA) for India, which has the responsibility of planning, coordinating and implementing national ICP activities.
- India is also proud to have been a co-Chairof the ICP Governing Board along with Statistics Austria for the ICP 2017 cycle.
The main objectives of the ICP are to:
- produce purchasing power parities (PPPs)and comparable price level indexes (PLIs) for participating economies. Hence statements 2 is correct
- convert volume and per capita measures of gross domestic product (GDP) and its expenditure components into a common currency using PPPs.
4.With respect to Seabed 2030 Project, consider the following statements
- It aims to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it available to all.
- It is a part of India’s Deep ocean mission
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: Why scientists want to map the ocean floor
- An international collaboration of researchers has finished mapping nearlyone-fifth of the world’s ocean floor recently.
- The need for a bathymetric base map of the southeastern Indian Ocean also became particularly evident in the search for the Malaysia Airlines flight MH370, which disappeared 8 March 2014.”
- The maps would also ensure a better understanding of climate change, since floor features including canyons and underwater volcanoes influence phenomena such as the vertical mixing of ocean water, and ocean currents — which act as conveyor belts of warm and cold water, thus influencing the weather and climate.
About Seabed 2030 project
- Seabed 2030 is a collaborative project between the Nippon Foundation of Japan and the General Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO). Hence statements 2 is incorrect
- It aims to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it available to all. Hence statements 1 is correct
- The project was launched at the United Nations (UN) Ocean Conference in June 2017 and is aligned with the UN’s Sustainable Development Goal #14 to conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources.
- Knowing the depth and shape of the seafloor (bathymetry) is fundamental for understanding ocean circulation, tides, tsunami forecasting, fishing resources, sediment transport, environmental change, underwater geo-hazards, cable and pipeline routing, mineral extraction, oil and gas exploration and development, infrastructure construction and maintenance and much more.
- Seabed 2030 comprises four Regional Centers and a Global Center.
- The Seabed 2030 Project, however, aims to obtain higher quality information that has a minimum resolution of 100 m at all spots, using equipment such as deep-water hull-mounted sonar systems, and more advanced options such as Underwater Vehicles.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/mapping-the-ocean-floor-6473482/
5.Arrange the following region from North to South according to their location?
- Galwan Valley
- Demchok
- Daulat Beg Oldie
- Pangong Tso
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
- 1-4-3-2
- 2-3-4-1
- 4-3-1-2
- 3-1-4-2
Answer: (d) 3-1-4-2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Pangong Tso remains biggest hurdle in lowering tensions after top commanders’ meet in Ladakh
- The Corps Commander-level talks between Indian and Chinese armies went on for 11 hours but the situation at Pangong Lake still continues to be the big bone of contention as the dialogue was held amid a massive build at the Line of Actual Control
- Though current theatre of military tension also includes Galwan Valley, Demchok and Daulat Beg Oldie, the focus of the India-China border dispute is likely to be on Pangong Tso.
- Pangong means conclave in Ladakhi and Tso means a lake in Tibetan language, The lake is divided into 8 fingers. In military parlance, the mountainous spurs jutting out into the lake are referred to as fingers.
- The Pangong Lake is about 135 km long, situated at over 14,000 feet.
- The Line of Actual Control (LAC) – the line that separates Indian and Chinese troops since 1962– generally runs along the land and through the waters of Pangong Tso.
- Pangong Tso is strategically crucial as it is very close to Chusul Valley, which was one of the battlefronts between India and China during the 1962 war.
- China appears to keep India constricted in the region by taking strategic advantage of looking over the Chusul Valley, which it can do if it advances along Pangong Tso.
- China does not want India to boost its infrastructure anywhere near the LAC.
- Daulat Beg Oldie is the highest airfield in the world. This road, when complete, will reduce the travel time from Leh to Daulat Beg Oldie from two days to six hours.
6.Consider the following statements regardingAnimal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund
- The eligible beneficiaries under the Scheme would be Farmer Producer Organizations, Private Companies and individual entrepreneur
- It would facilitate to incentivisation of investments in establishment of animal feed plant in the private sector.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM Modi says Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund will boost farmers income, give fillip to sectoral infrastructure
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved setting up of Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) worth Rs 15000 crore.
- The Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund would facilitate much-needed incentivisation of investments for dairy and meatprocessing and value addition infrastructure and establishment of animal feed plant in the private sector. Hence statements 2 is correct
- The eligible beneficiaries of the AHIDF fund will be Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), MSMEs, Section 8 Companies, Private Companies and individualentrepreneurs with a minimum 10 percent margin money contribution by them. Hence statements 1 is correct
- The remaining 90 percent will be loan component to be made available by scheduled banks.
- The centre will provide 3 percent interest subvention to the eligible beneficiaries. They will also be given 2 years moratorium period for principal loan amount and 6 years repayment period thereafter.
- The Indian Government would also set up a Credit Guarantee Fund worth Rs 750 crore to be managed by NABARD.
- The Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund and the interest subvention scheme will ensure the availability of capital to meet the upfront investment required for these projects and it will also help enhance overall returns and payback for investors.
7.Consider the following statements regardingfishing cats
- It is listed as endangered species on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List
- They are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans and in the Western Ghats.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Odisha starts project to conserve Bhitarkanika fishing cats
The Odisha forest department has started a two-year conservation project for fishing cats in Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara district.
About Fishing cats:
- In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys and in the Western Ghats. Hence statements 2 is correct
- Fishing cats hunt fish and crustaceans for food from the park’s water bodies: They dive in to catch prey with their hooked claws.
- The species is listed as ‘endangered’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List. This means it faces a high threat of extinction in the wild. Hence statements 1 is correct
- The United Nations Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) lists the fishing cat on Appendix II in Article IV of CITES: This governs international trade in this species.
- The species is also classified under the first schedule of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- A major threat for fishing cats is the destruction of wetlands, their preferred habitat. The prawn mafia in the area have reportedly destroyed aquatic ecologies.
- Fishing cats earlier roamed in these areas for fish
8.Consider the following statements regarding International criminal Court
- It has jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and crimes of aggression.
- It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations
- India is not a member of the ICC.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The U.S. trial at The Hague
- S. President Donald Trump’s authorisation of new sanctions on the International Criminal Court (ICC) is an act of retaliation against the UN body’s high-profile investigation to bring justice to victims of war crimes and crimes against humanity.
- In March, the Hague Court’s Appeals Chamber unanimously authorised investigation into alleged atrocities by U.S. troops in Afghanistan since May 1, 2003
- The U.S. has always refused to recognise ICC jurisdiction over U.S. personnel on the grounds that it is not party to the Rome Statute that underpins the court
About International criminal Court
- The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. Hence statements 1 is correct
- It is the first permanent, treaty-based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community
- 6 official languages: English, French, Arabic, Chinese, Russian and Spanish.
- Headquarters: The Hague, the Netherlands.
- It is intended to complement existing national judicial systems and it may therefore exercise its jurisdiction only when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual states refer situations to the Court.
- The ICC began functioning on 1 July 2002, the date that the Rome Statute entered into force.
- The Rome Statute is a multilateral treaty that serves as the ICC’s foundationaland governing document. Hence statements 2 is incorrect
- The ICC has heard 27 cases until now.
- India is not a member of the ICC. Hence statements 3 is correct
- The Rome Statute then took effect in 2002, upon ratification by 60 States.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-us-trial-at-the-hague/article31908672.ece
9.Recently, the 2020 Global Education Monitoring Report is released by which of the following international organization?
- United Nations Children’s Fund
- World Economic Forum
- United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
- Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
Answer: (c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Explanation:
In NEWS: COVID-19 widened educational divide: UNESCO report
In line with its mandate, the 2020 GEM Report assesses progress towards Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) on education and its ten targets, as well as other related education targets in the SDG agenda. The 2020 Global Education Monitoring Report was released by UNESCO. Hence option (c) is correct
- The COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated inequalities in education systems across the world.
- According to a UNESCO report released, about 40% of low- and lower-middle-income countries have not supported learners at risk of exclusion during this crisis, such as the poor, linguistic minorities and learners with disabilities.
- The 2020 Global Education Monitoring Report noted that efforts to maintain learning continuity during the pandemic may have actually worsened exclusion trends. During the height of school closures in April 2020, almost 91% of students around the world were out of school.
- Education systems during the pandemic responded with distance learning solutions, all of which offered less or more imperfect substitutes for classroom instruction.
- While many poorer countries opted for radio and television lessons, 55% of low-income, 73% of lower-middle-income and 93% of upper-middle-income countries adopted for online learning platforms for primary and secondary education.
- Unavailability of the resources outside:School closures due to lockdowns have also interrupted support mechanisms from which many disadvantaged learners benefit.
- Other problems:Unfair to certain section of students and Higher drop-out rates
10.In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
- Federal Legislature
- Governor General
- Provincial Legislature
- Provincial Governors
Answer: (b) Governor General
Explanation:
- The Government of India Act of 1935 envisaged an all -India federation consisting of eleven Governor’s provinces, six Chief Commissioner’s provinces, and such Indian States as would agree to join the federation. The governmental subjects were divided into three Lists i.e. Federal, Provincial and Concurrent.
- The provincial legislatures were given exclusive power to legislate with respect to matters in the Provincial list. The federal legislature had the exclusive power to make law on matters in the Federal List.
- The federal and the provincial legislatures had concurrent jurisdiction with respect to matters in the Concurrent List. In case of conflict between a provincial law and a federal law on a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, the latter was to prevail, and the former would, to the extent of the repugnancy be void.
- Residuary powers were vested in the Governor -General, who could, in his discretion, assign any such power by a public notification to the federallegislature or the provincial legislature. Hence option (b) is correct
