Which of the statements is incorrect regarding Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Padhati?
- a) Natural farming is promoted as BPKP under a centrally sponsored scheme- Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
- b) It mainly emphasizes the exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs and promotes on-farm biomass recycling.
- c) It stresses on biomass mulching; use of cow dung-urine formulations; plant-based preparations and time to time working of soil for aeration.
- d) Under BPKP, financial assistance of Rs 12200/ha for 3 years is provided for cluster formation, capacity building, and continuous hand holding by trained personnel
Answer: (b) It mainly emphasizes the exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs and promotes on-farm biomass recycling
Explanation:
In NEWS: Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Padhati (BPKP)
- Government is implementing Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati (BPKP) as a sub scheme of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) from 2020-21 for the promotion of traditional indigenous practices.
- The scheme mainly emphasizes on exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs and promotes on-farm biomass recycling with major stress on biomass mulching; use of cow dung-urine formulations; plant-based preparations and time to time working of soil for aeration. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Under BPKP, financial assistance of Rs 12200/ha for 3 years is provided for cluster formation, capacity building and continuous hand holding by trained personnel, certification and residue analysis.
- As of now, an area of 4.9 lakh ha is covered in 8 states and Rs. 4980.99 lakh has been released.
About Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
- “PKVY” is an elaborated component of Soil Health Management (SHM) of the major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
- Under PMKVY Organic farming is promoted through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach and PGS certification.
The Scheme envisages:
- Promotion of commercial organic production through certified organic farming.
- The produce will be pesticide residue free and will contribute to improve the health of consumers.
- It will raise farmer’s income and create a potential market for traders.
- It will motivate the farmers for natural resource mobilization for input production
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1737751
Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation is conducted every two years by
- a) World Bank
- b) International Telecommunication Union
- c) United Nation’s Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific
- d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
Answer: (c) United Nation’s Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific
Explanation:
In NEWS: India sees significant improvement in UNESCAP score on trade facilitation
- India has seen a “significant improvement” in the UNESCAP’s Global Survey on Digital & Sustainable Trade Facilitation with a 90.32 percent
- After evaluation of 143 economies, the Survey 2021 has highlighted India’s significant improvement in the scores on all five key indicators — transparency, formalities, institutional arrangement and cooperation, paperless trade and cross-border paperless trade.
- Under the transparency indicator, the country scored 100 per cent in 2021, up from 93.33 percent in 2019. The score for ‘paperless trade’ improved to 96.3 per cent in 2021, from 81.48 per cent in 2019. The score in the institutional arrangement and cooperation indicator improved to 88.89 per cent, from 66.67 percent in 2019.
- Among developed countries, Australia, New Zealand, Netherlands, Japan, and Belgium have scored more than 93%.
- In South Asia, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka were behind India with a score of 64.5% and 60.2%, the survey showed.
About the Survey
- The Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation is conducted every two years by UNESCAP. Hence option (c) is correct.
- The 2021 Survey includes an assessment of 58 trade facilitation measures covered by the WTO’s Trade Facilitation Agreement.
- The Survey is keenly awaited globally as it evidences whether or not the trade facilitation measures being taken have the desired impact and helps draw comparison amongst countries.
- A higher score for a country also helps businesses in their investment decisions.
Nord Stream 2 Pipeline is a system of offshore natural gas pipelines running between which of the two following countries?
- a) Sweden to Norway
- b) Denmark to Poland
- c) Russia to Germany
- d) Finland to Sweden
Answer: (c) Russia to Germany
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: Why the US has changed its mind on Nord Stream 2 pipeline
- The green signal to the Russia-Germany pipeline by Biden has angered Republicans, with Ted Cruz denouncing the agreement as “a generational geopolitical win for Putin and a catastrophe for the United States and our allies.” Hence option (c) is correct.
- The US and Germany reached a deal on the Nord Stream 2 pipeline– which significantly increases Europe’s energy dependence on Russia– under which Berlin will respond to stop Moscow should the latter use the strategically critical gas system as political leverage.
What is the Nord Stream 2 pipeline?
- In 2015, the Russian energy major Gazprom and five other European firms decided to build Nord Stream 2, valued at around $11 billion. The 1,200-km pipeline will run from Ust-Luga in Russia to Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic Sea, and will carry 55 billion cubic metres of gas per year.
- In Lubmin the lines connect to the OPAL line to Olbernhau on the Czech border and to the NEL line to Rehden near Bremen.
- The first line Nord Stream-1 was laid and inaugurated in 2011 and the second line in 2012.
- At 1,222 km in length, Nord Stream is the longest subsea pipeline in the world, surpassing the Langeled pipeline.
Why is the pipeline controversial?
- Since it was first planned, Nord Stream 2 has drawn criticism from the US which believed that the project would increase Europe’s dependence on Russia for natural gas.
- Currently, EU countries already rely on Russia for 40 percent of their gas needs.
- The project also has opponents in eastern Europe, especially Ukraine, whose ties with Russia have seriously deteriorated in the aftermath of the Crimean conflict in 2014.
- There is an existing land pipeline between Russia and Europe that runs through Ukraine.
- The country feels that once Nord Storm 2 is completed, Russia could bypass the Ukrainian pipeline, and deprive it of lucrative transit fees of around $3 billion per year.
- Ukraine also fears another invasion by Russia once the new pipeline is operational.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nord-stream-pipeline-us-germany-7417589/
Which of the following countries are members of Mekong Ganga Cooperation?
- Myanmar
- Thailand
- Vietnam
- India
- Bangladesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
- b) 3, 4 and 5 only
- c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
- d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Mekong region is of great importance to India: EAM Jaishankar
- External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar addressed the 11th Mekong-Ganga Cooperation meeting comprising six countries — India, Cambodia, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos and Vietnam. Hence option (d) is correct.
- He also called for a “collective and collaborative” response to effectively deal with coronavirus pandemic, saying the virus does not respect national boundaries.
- India is seeking a multi-dimensional engagement with the Mekong region considering its great importance
About Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC)
- The Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries – Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam.
- It is an initiative aiming to facilitate closer connections between these 6 member countries which share the Ganga river and Mekong river basins.
- Established in 2000, the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) comprises six member countries to foster culture and commerce among them.
- The four areas of cooperation are Culture, Education, Tourism, and Transportation.
- It is named after the Ganga and the Mekong which are both civilizational rivers.
- The MGC aims at developing closer relations and better understanding among the member-countries to enhance friendship, solidarity, and cooperation; facilitating inter-state movement and transit; transport of goods and people in the region; creating necessary infrastructural facilities in the Ganga-Mekong basin areas, and encouraging active participation in poverty eradication.
Consider the following statements regarding Essential Defence Services Bill 2021:
- It includes any service in any establishment or undertaking dealing with production of goods or equipment required for defence related purposes.
- Under this bill, the central government may prohibit strikes, lock-outs, and lay-offs in units engaged in essential defence services.
- It will amend the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to include essential defence services under public utility services.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) 1 and 2 only
- d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: What is the Essential Defence Services Bill and what is its objective?
- Minister of State for Defence Ajay Bhatt introduced the Essential Defence Services Bill in the Lok Sabha. If this bill is passed it will come into effect from 30th June 2021.
- Essential Defence Services:
- It includes any service in any establishment or undertaking dealing with production of goods or equipment required for defence related purposes or any establishment of the armed forces or connected with them or defence. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- It also includes services that, if ceased, would affect the safety of the establishment engaged in such services or its employees.
- These also include services that, if ceased, would affect the safety of the establishment engaged in such services or its employees.
- In addition, the government may declare any service as an essential defence service if its cessation would affect the:
- production of defence equipment or goods,
- operation or maintenance of industrial establishments or units engaged in such production, or
- repair or maintenance of products connected with defence.
- Prohibition on strikes, lock-outs, and lay-offs:
- Government may prohibit strikes, lock-outs, and lay-offs in units engaged in essential defence services. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- It may issue such an order if necessary in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of any state, public order, public, decency and morality.
- Punishment:
- All offences punishable will becognisable and non-bailable
- Illegal Lock-Outs and Lay-Offs:
- Employers violating the prohibition order through illegal lock-outs or lay-offs will be punished with up to one year imprisonment or Rs 10,000 fine, or both.
- Strikes:
- Persons commencing or participating in illegal strikes – Up to one year imprisonment or Rs 10,000 fine, or both.
- Persons instigating, inciting, or taking actions to continue illegal strikes, or knowingly supplying money for such purposes- Up to two years imprisonment or Rs 15,000 fine, or both.
- Public Utility Service:
- It will amend the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to include essential defence services under public utility services. Hence statement (3) is correct.
- The undertakings which supply the basic necessary services such as electricity, water, gas, power, transport etc. comes under the purview of the public utility services.
In the Indian Constitution, Right to strike is a
- a) Fundamental right.
- b) Human Right
- c) Moral Right
- d) Legal Right
Answer: (d) Legal Right
Explanation:
In NEWS: What is the Essential Defence Services Bill and what is its objective?
- Minister of State for Defence Ajay Bhatt introduced the Essential Defence Services Bill in the Lok Sabha. If this bill is passed it will come into effect from 30th June 2021.
About Right to strike
Right to strike is recognized globally. Article 19(1) the Constitution of India guarantees the protection of certain freedoms as fundamental rights such as:
- Freedom of speech and expression.
- Assemble peaceably and without arms.
- Form associations or unions.
- Move freely throughout the territory of India.
- Reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
- Practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. Hence option (d) is correct.
However, strike is not expressly recognized in the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court settled the case of Kameshwar Prasad v. The State of Bihar 1958 by stating that strike is not a fundamental right. Government employees have no legal or moral rights to go on strikes.
India recognized strike as a statutory right under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Industrial Disputes Act 1947:
It defines public utility service and strike, it also puts certain prohibitions on the right to strike. It provides that no person employed in public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract:
- Without giving the employer notice of strike within six weeks before striking.
- Within fourteen days of giving such notice.
- Before the expiry of the date of strike specified in any such notice as aforesaid.
- During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings.
It is to be noted that these provisions do not prohibit the workmen from going on strike but require them to fulfill the condition before going on strike. Further these provisions apply to a public utility service only.
Consider the following statements:
- The list of World Heritage Sites is maintained by the international ‘World Heritage Programme’, administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee.
- The English city of Liverpool has been removed from UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: UNESCO strips Liverpool of its world heritage status
- The World Heritage Committee, holding its 44th session in Fuzhou and online, decided to delete the property ‘Liverpool – Maritime Mercantile City’ (UK) from the World Heritage List. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- The English city of Liverpool has been removed from UNESCO’s list of world heritage sites after the United Nations’ cultural agency found new buildings,including a football stadium, undermined the attractiveness of its Victorian docks
- The new buildings including a football stadium undermine the attractiveness of its Victorian docks and were destroying the heritage value of its waterfront.
- The over development would irreversibly damage the heritage of the historic port.
About World Heritage Site:
- A World Heritage Site is a place that is listed by UNESCO for its special cultural or physical significance.The list of World Heritage Sites is maintained by the international ‘World Heritage Programme’, administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- It seeks to encourage the identification, protection and preservation of cultural and natural heritage around the world considered to be of outstanding value to humanity.
- This is embodied in an international treaty called the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage, adopted by UNESCO in 1972.
- It provides a framework for international cooperation in preserving and protecting cultural treasures and natural areas throughout the world.
- Types:
- Cultural heritage sites include historic buildings and town sites, important archaeological sites, and works of monumental sculpture or painting.
- Natural heritage sites are restricted to natural areas.
- Mixed heritage sites contain elements of both natural and cultural significance
Recently, the report Renewable Integration in India 2021 was seen in the news, released by which of the following international organisations?
- a) NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency
- b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency and International Renewable Energy Agency
- c) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission and World Bank
- d) Power Grid Corporation of India and Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
Answer: (a) NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency
Explanation:
In NEWS: NITI Aayog and IEA launch ‘Renewables Integration in India 2021’
- A report on “Renewables Integration in India 2021” was jointly launched by NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency (IEA). Hence option (a) is correct.
- The report is based on the outcome of three state workshops held with the Governments of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Gujarat to understand the specific energy transition challenges faced by these renewable-rich states. The report uses IEA modelling results to show the effects of different flexibility options on the power system.
- The report highlights that India’s power system can efficiently integrate renewables (175 GW by 2022 and 450 GW by 2030), but it would require identification of resources and proper planning, regulatory, policy and institutional support, energy storage and advance technology initiatives.
- Indian states need to employ a wide range of flexibility options – such as demand response, more flexible operation of coal based power plants, storage, and grid improvements – to transition to cleaner electricity systems.
- Larger shares of renewables can be better managed by shifting time of use in agriculture. Time of Use (ToU) tariffs will be an effective tool to incentivise demand side management and encourage flexible consumption.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1738276
Consider the following statements regarding rare diseases:
- It is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared with other prevalent diseases in the general population.
- There is no policy on rare diseases policy in India so far.
- Financial support up to is provided under the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi shall be provided by the Central Government for treatment of those rare diseases that require a one-time treatment.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) 1 and 2 only
- d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Rare Diseases Policy
- The Policy aims at lowering the incidence and prevalence of rare diseases based on an integrated and comprehensive preventive strategy encompassing awareness generation, premarital, post-marital, pre-conception and post-conception screening and counselling programmes to prevent births of children with rare diseases, and within the constraints on resources and competing health care priorities, enable access to affordable health care to patients of rare diseases.
- A rare disease is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared with other prevalent diseases in the general population. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- There is no universally accepted definition of rare diseases and the definitions usually vary across different countries.
- Though rare diseases are of low prevalence and individually rare, collectively they affect a considerable proportion of the population. The policy has categorised rare diseases in three groups:
- Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment.
- Group 2: Those requiring long term or lifelong treatment.
- Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy.
- Initiatives for treatment support for patients of rare diseases under the Policy are as follows: –
- Financial support up to Rs. 20 lakhs under the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi shall be provided by the Central Government for treatment of those rare diseases that require a one-time treatment (diseases listed under Group 1). Beneficiaries for such financial assistance would not be limited to BPL families, but extended to about 40% of the population, who are eligible as per norms of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, for their treatment in Government tertiary hospitals only. Hence statement (3) is correct.
- State Governments can consider supporting patients of such rare diseases that can be managed with special diets or hormonal supplements or other relatively low-cost interventions (Diseases listed under Group 2).
- Keeping in view the resource constraints, and a compelling need to prioritize the available resources to get maximum health gains for the community/population, the Government will endeavour to create an alternate funding mechanism through setting up a digital platform for voluntary individual and corporate donors to contribute to the treatment cost of patients of rare diseases.
- At present financial assistance to poor patients, living below threshold poverty line and also to the population, who are eligible as per norms of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana under Ayushman Bharat, suffering from specified rare diseases for their treatment at Government Hospitals or Institutes having super specialty facilities / Government tertiary hospitals is being provided under the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN). The budget allocation for the current financial year 2021-2022 for rare diseases is Rupees 25 Crore.
- National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 provides for the National Consortium for Research and Development on therapeutics for Rare Diseases with an expanded mandate to include research & development, technology transfer and indigenization of therapeutics for rare diseases. It will be convened by the Department of Health Research (DHR) with ICMR as a member. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1738276
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
- Right against Exploitation
- Right to Freedom
- Right to Constitutional Remedies
- Right to Equality
Answer: (d) Right to Equality
Explanation:
Right to Equality (Article 14 -18) protects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, or place of birth. Article 14 says that all citizens enjoy equal privileges and opportunities. Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Article 16 says that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practise in any form. Article 18 abolishes all titles national or foreign which create artificial distinctions in social status amongst the people. Hence option (d) is correct.
