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Daily Prelims Test – 25_February 2021

Consider the following Statements regarding Pagri Sambhal Movement

  1. It was a farm agitation that forced the British government to repeal three laws related to agriculture in 1907
  2. It was founded by Bhagat Singh.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: On Pagri Sambhal Diwas, a look at the 1907 movement that made British scrap 3 farm laws

  • As part of the ongoing farmers’ protest, the Samyukta Kisan Morcha (SKM) is celebrating February 23 as ‘Pagri Sambhal Diwas’

About Pagri Sambhal Movement

  • It was a successful farm agitation that forced the British government to repeal three laws related to agriculture back in 1907. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The three farm-related acts at the centre of the storm in 1907 were the Punjab Land Alienation Act 1900, the Punjab Land Colonisation Act 1906 and the Doab Bari Act.
    • The acts would reduce farmers from owners to contractors of land, and gave the British government the right to take back the allotted land if the farmer even touched a tree in his field without permission.
  • It was founded by Ajit Singh, uncle of freedom fighter Bhagat Singh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Ajit Singh persuaded Congress leader Lala Lajpat Rai to come on the stage during a rally in Lyallpur in 1907 to protest against the laws.
  • ‘Pagrhi sambhaal oh Jatta’ became the anthem of the movement.
  • Lyallpur district was chosen as centre for agitation because it was a developed area and it had people from almost all parts of Punjab as also retired military people.
  • The agitation couldn’t remain non-violent as Ajit Singh was booked for sedition after his speech at a public meeting in Rawalpindi in 1921 and violence erupted afterwards.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-in-cji-bobdes-objection-to-you-honour-a-renewed-debate-on-court-etiquette-7202728/


Which of the following will not lead to the disqualification of a Member of the Parliament on the grounds of defection?

  1. If an elected member gives up his membership of a political party voluntarily. 
  2. If he votes or abstains from voting in the House, contrary to any direction issued by his political party. 
  3. If any member who is independently elected joins any party.
  4. Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he demits that post.

Answer: (d) Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he demits that post.

Explanation:

In NEWS: The anti-defection law continues to damage Indian democracy

  • The anti-defection law will fail again , this time in Puducherry. Chief Minister V Narayanasamy, who heads the Congress government, has been asked to prove its majority in the Vidhan Sabha.
  • The anti-defection law has been singularly responsible for stifling debate in our Parliament and state legislatures. For example, approximately 250 Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha have declared their profession as farmers. They are from different political parties and represent people across the country. During the debate on the three farm bills, they could not support or oppose these bills based on their knowledge and experience of the agricultural sector.
  • In the absence of an anti-defection law, MPs are free to vote based on their conscience on all issues.

About anti-defection law

  • The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
  • It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
  • The decision on question as to disqualification on ground of defection is referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, and his decision is final.
  • The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.

Grounds for disqualification:

  • If an elected member gives up his membership of a political party voluntarily. 
  • If he votes or abstains from voting in the House, contrary to any direction issued by his political party. 
  • If any member who is independently elected joins any party. 
  • If any nominated member joins any political party after the end of 6 months.
  • All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the case.

Exceptions under the Anti Defection Law

  • In the situation where two-thirds of the legislators of a political party decide to merge into another party, neither the members who decide to join nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification. 
  • Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he demits that post.  Hence option (d) is correct
  • Earlier, the law allowed parties to be split, but at present, this has been outlawed.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/opinion/the-anti-defection-law-continues-to-damage-indian-democracy-101613914337557.html


With reference to S.R.Bommai case (1994), which of the following situations amount to proper imposition of President’s rule in a state?

Hung Assembly

Maladministration and  Stringent financial exigencies of the state

A ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry/government

A constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.

Select the correct option from the given below codes

  1. 3 and 4 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Cabinet approves President’s Rule in Puducherry

  • The Union Cabinet approved a proposal to impose President’s Rule in Puducherry, days after a Congress-led government in the union territory lost power during a vote of confidence.
  • Announcing the Cabinet decision, Union Minister Prakash Javadekar told reporters that the decision was taken as no party claimed to form a government in Puducherry following the resignation of the chief minister there.

What is President rule?

  • Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule of any state in the country “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
  • Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
  • The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India.
  • As of now, Chhattisgarh and Telangana are the only states where President’s rule has not been imposed.
  • Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre–state Relations(1988), the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper.

Imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper in the following situations:

  • Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, Hung Assembly.
    • Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
  • Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
  • Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.
  • Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.
  • Physical breakdown where the government willfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state.

The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:

  • Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry.
  • Where the governor makes his own assessment of the support of a ministry in the assembly and recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.
  • Where the ruling party enjoying majority support in the assembly has suffered a massive defeat in the general elections to the Lok Sabha such as in 1977 and 1980.
  • Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion or physical breakdown.
  • Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state. Hence option (d) is correct
  • Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.
  • Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party, or for a purpose extraneous or irrelevant to the one for which it has been conferred by the Constitution.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/cabinet-approves-presidents-rule-in-puducherry-7202791/


Recently, a kangaroo painting created over 17,000 years ago by Aboriginal artists has been identified in which of the following region?

India

Australia

South Africa

Peru

Answer: (b) Australia

Explanation:

In NEWS: 17,000-year-old kangaroo painting is Australia’s oldest Aboriginal rock art

  • A kangaroo painting created over 17,000 years ago by Aboriginal artists has been identified — with a little help from some ancient wasps — as Australia’s oldest intact rock art. Hence option (b) is correct
  • The two-metre-long (six-feet) artwork on the sloped ceiling of a rock shelter in Western Australia’s Kimberley region was painted in an early naturalistic style, which often features life-sized renderings of animals
  • They estimated that the kangaroo painting was between 17,500 and 17,100 years old, the oldest discovered to date
  • In total, the team dated 27 mud wasp nests around 16 different paintings from eight rock shelters, and found that the artworks in this same naturalistic style were produced between around 17,000 and 13,000 years ago.
  • The images were mostly depictions of animals, including a snake, a lizard-like figure, and three macropods — marsupials including kangaroos, wallabies and quokkas.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/17000-year-old-kangaroo-painting-is-australias-oldest-aboriginal-rock-art/article33920167.ece


Consider the following Statements regarding Cremanthodium indicum

  1. It is an alpine plant species endemic to the Penga-Teng Tso Lake of Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh
  2. It has been listed as critically endangered.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: New alpine plant species discovered in Arunachal Pradesh

  • A new species of alpine plant in Arunachal Pradesh’s Tawang district has been discovered by a group of scientists
  • Tawang district holds one of the assemblages of flowering plants in the northeastern state, which attracts botanists across the world.
  • About species:
  • The new species belongs to the family of Himalayan sunflower
  • It is named as Cremanthodium indicum, and the plant species which generally flowers from July to August, is endemic to Penga-Teng Tso Lake of Tawang district. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The alpine plant species is assessed as critically endangered, according to the IUCN guidelines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It is a perennial herb and stands 16–24 cm tall. Cremanthodium indica grows in boggy soil among mosses along the banks of alpine lake

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-alpine-plant-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh/article33920366.ece


Consider the following Statements regarding DBW187 (Karan Vandana)

It is the latest wheat variety released for irrigated timely sown conditions of Northern Plains Zones

It is resistant to all diseases including wheat blast.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: New variety may lift wheat output to a record this year

  • India’s wheat production is heading for a record in the current crop season 2020 July-2021 June on rise in acreage and change in varietal mix aided by a favourable weather.
  • The crop is in good condition across all wheat-producing States and we are heading for another record harvest, which could range between 112 and 114 million tonnes this year
  • Farmers have planted the new high-yielding variety DBW187 between two and three million hectares, mainly in Punjab and Haryana, which will contribute to increase in output this year

About DBW187

  • It is a new hybrid wheat variety Karan Vandana
  • DBW187 — released in 2019 and recommended for all wheat-growing States in the Indo-Gangetic belt from West Bengal to Jammu. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is resistant to all diseases including wheat blast. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It has higher protein content of around 12.5 per cent and yields up to eight tonnes per hectare
  • It has high heat tolerance across the country.
  • It can be cultivated only in areas under full irrigation support.
  • It has been developed by the Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley Research (IIWBR) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
  • DBW 187 has better bread and chapati making quality with higher gluten and protein content, which are as good as international standards.
  • It has best gluten index of 80 in comparison to the checks
  • The prevailing popular wheat varieties are HD-3086 and HD-2967.

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/new-variety-may-lift-wheat-output-to-a-record-this-year/article33916446.ece


What are the consequence(s) may face when the country comes under the FATF grey list?

  1. Economic sanctions from IMF, World Bank, ADB
  2. Problem in getting loans from IMF, World Bank, ADB and other countries
  3. Reduction in international trade
  4. International boycott

Select the correct option from the given below codes

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

In NEWS: FATF to decide today on Pakistan’s grey list status

  • The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is set to decide today whether or not Pakistan has made considerable efforts to counter terror financing, and take a call on whether the country will continue to remain in the grey list. It is highly unlikely that Islamabad will get a breather from the sword hanging on its head as European nations believe the country has not fully implemented the points in the plan of action laid down by the watchdog.

About Financial Action Task Force

  • The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body decision-making body. It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering. 
  • It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in money laundering. 
  • It has also started dealing with virtual currencies. 
  • The FATF Secretariat is located in Paris.
  • India became an Observer at FATF in 2006. Since then, it had been working towards full-fledged membership. On June 25, 2010 India was taken in as the 34th country member of FATF.

What is the objective of FATF?

FATF sets standards and promotes effective implementation of:

  • legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering.
  • The FATF works to identify national-level vulnerabilities with the aim of protecting the international financial system from misuse. 

What as FATF ‘grey list’ and ‘blacklist’?

 FATF has 2 types of lists:

  • Black List: Countries knowns as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put in the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
  • Grey List: Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.

Consequences of being in the FATF grey list: Hence option (d) is correct

  • Economic sanctions from IMF, World Bank, ADB 
  • Problem in getting loans from IMF, World Bank, ADB and other countries
  • Reduction in international trade
  • International boycott

Source: http://newsonair.com/News?title=FATF-to-decide-today-on-Pakistan%26%2339%3bs-grey-list-status&id=410532


Medaram Jatara is also known as Sammakka Saralamma Jatara seen in news. What is it?

  1. It is a tribal uprising mainly against Hindu landlords in Bengal.
  2. It is an oldest buddist document
  3. It is a tribal festival celebrated in the state of Telangana
  4. None of the above

Answer: (c) It is a tribal festival celebrated in the state of Telangana

Explanation:

In NEWS: Amid Covid-19 fears, thousands throng Telangana’s Sammakka-Saralamma festival

  • The threat of Covid-19 notwithstanding, thousands of Adivasis from different parts of the country thronged to the tribal village of Medaram in the dense forests of Tadvai block in Telangana’s Mulug district to participate in the four-day Sammakka-Saralamma jatara (tribal fair)
  • Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, the centuries-old festival of the Koya tribe, has turned the dusty little village into the venue of one of the country’s biggest festivals.
  • It is a tribal festival honouring the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, with the reigning rulers against an unjust law. Hence option (c) is correct
  • It is celebrated in the state of Telangana. The Jatra begins at Medaram in Tadvai Mandal in Warangal district.
  • Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the region.
  • It is held every two years (biannually). It is celebrated during the time the goddesses of the tribals is believed to visit them.
  • The tribal fair draws devotees not only from Telangana, but also from other states like Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
  • The tribals believe that Sammakka and Saralamma had laid down their lives fighting the mighty emperors of the Kakatiya dynasty who had attacked their little tribal hamlet demanding royalty and sought to destroy their life and culture
  • People offer bangaram/gold (jaggery) of a quantity equal to their weight to the goddesses and take holy bath in Jampanna Vagu, a tributary to River Godavari.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/amid-covid-19-fears-thousands-throng-telangana-s-sammakka-saralamma-festival-101614181593834.html


Consider the following Statements regarding Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog

  1. It is a high powered permanent apex advisory body with the mandate to help the Central Government to develop appropriate programmes for genetic upgradation of indigenous breeds of cows.
  2. It will function as an integral part of Rashtriya Gokul Mission.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: Ministry disowns Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog’s ‘cow science exam’

  • With the Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog having cancelled its “indigenous cow science” examination after widespread criticism about its promotion of fake claims and pseudoscience
  • Now, the Animal Husbandry Department has said that RKA had “no mandate” to conduct such an examination
  • The RKA had announced a national “Kamdhenu Gau Vigyan Prachar Prasar Exam” to be held on February 25. Reference materials for the exam made a number of unscientific claims, including that the dung of indigenous cows protected against radioactivity, and that their milk has traces of gold, and that cow slaughter causes earthquakes.

About Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog

  • The Aayog is a high powered permanent apex advisory body with mandate to help the Central Government to develop appropriate programmes for conservation, sustainable development and genetic upgradation of Indigenous breeds of cowsHence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Aayog will review existing laws, policies as well as suggest measures for optimum economic utilization of cow wealth for enhanced production and productivity, leading to higher farm income and better quality of life for the dairy farmers. 
  • It also aims at transmission and application of improved technology and management practices at the farmers’ doorstep through coordination with dairy cooperatives, farmer producer companies and dairy industry as well as research institutions. 
  • Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog will function as an integral part of Rashtriya Gokul Mission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ministry-disowns-rashtriya-kamdhenu-aayogs-cow-science-exam/article33916179.ece


Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? 

  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased. 
  3. FDI inflows increased. 
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

  1. 1 and 4 only 
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2,3 and 4 only 

Explanation:

  • The post-reform period shows the gradual decline in the agriculture sector’s contribution to the Indian economy. India’s traditional occupation, agriculture now contributes only about 15% to the GDP, down from 29 percent in 1991. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • Share of India’s exports increased since 1991. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • Before 1991, foreign investment was negligible. The first year of reform saw a total foreign investment of only $74 million. However, investments have steadily risen since then, except for occasional blips between 1997 and 2000 and 2008 and 2012 – owing to the global economic slowdown. As of 31 March 2016, the country has received total FDI of $371 billion, since 1991. The year 2008 recorded the highest FDI inflow of $43.40 billion. The biggest spurt in inflow was between 2005 and 2006 – 175.54%. As of March 2016, India has attracted $10.55 billion worth of FDI. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • It was India’s dismal state of forex reserves that forced the government to bring in economic reforms. Now, 25 years later, forex reserves are at a record high. In 1991, it stood at just $5.8 billion. As of 24 June, the country’s forex reserves are at $360.8 billion. Usually, import coverage of 7-8 months is considered sufficient. The biggest jump in reserves was witnessed between 2007 and 2008 when the kitty bulged 55% to hit $309.2 billion. Hence, statement 4 is correct.