Consider the following statements regarding YuWaah Platfor
1.It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports and United Nations Children Fund
2.It supports young people by providing entrepreneurship classes (online and offline) with successful entrepreneurs and experts
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports and United Nations Children Fund (UNICEF) are set to establish YuWaah, Generation Unlimited (GenU), a global multi-stakeholder platform in India. Hence statement 1 is correct
YuWaah Platform
As per the Statement of Intent, the objectives of this project are:
Support young people by providing entrepreneurship classes (online and offline) with successful entrepreneurs and experts, towards establishing an entrepreneurial mindset among young people. Hence statement 2 is correct
Upskilling of young people on 21st-century skills, life skills, digital skills through online and offline channels and support them through self-learning, for their productive lives and the future of work.
Create linkages with aspirational economic opportunities to connect young people with employment opportunities, including building pathways to connect them with jobs or self-employment.
Providing career guidance support to young people through career portal as well as through job-readiness and self-exploration sessions to make young people career-ready.
Source: https://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1657751
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MANF Scheme is implemented by the which of the following ministry?
1.Ministry of Minority Affairs
2.Ministry of Home Affairs
3.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
4.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Answer: (a) Ministry of Minority Affairs
Explanation:
In NEWS: Selection of candidates for 2019-20 under the MANF Scheme has been made through JRF-NET examination conducted by National Testing Agency
The Ministry of Minority Affairs implements Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF) Scheme for educational empowerment of students belonging to six notified minority communities i.e. Buddhist, Christian, Jain, Muslim, Sikh, Zoroastrian (Parsi).
About MANF Scheme
The Ministry of Minority Affairs implements MANF Scheme for educational empowerment of students belonging to six notified minority communities i.e. Buddhist, Christian, Jain, Muslim, Sikh, Zoroastrian (Parsi). Hence option (a) is correct
The Scheme is implemented through the University Grants Commission (UGC) and no waiting list is prepared under the Scheme by UGC.
Candidates belonging to the Six centrally notified minority are considered for award of fellowship under the MANF Scheme.
The selection of candidates is done through JRF-NET (Junior Research Fellow- National Eligibility Test) examination conducted by the National Testing Agency.
Prior to 2019-20, the merit list was prepared on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates in their Post Graduate examination.
However, in 2018-19, only the candidates who had qualified CBSE-UGC-NET/JRF or CSIR-NET/JRF were eligible to apply.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1657855
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Consider the following statements regarding Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor
1.It will use a mixed oxide of thorium-239 and uranium-238 as fuel to generate energy in a nuclear reaction.
2.It is a nuclear power reactor currently under construction at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) likely to bet commissioned in 2022: Dr Jitendra Singh
PFBR will add 500 MW of electrical power to the national grid.
About Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor
It is India’s first prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) which is being constructed by Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI).
It is a nuclear power reactor currently under construction at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is correct
The fast breeder reactors in general produce more fissile material than they consume.
It will be a sodium-cooled, pool-type reactor with a 500MWe capacity and a lifespan of 40 years.
The PFBR in Kalpakkam will use a mixed oxide of plutonium-239 which is derived from reprocessed spent fuel from the thermal pressurised heavy water reactors and uranium-238 as fuel to generate energy in a nuclear reaction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
The surplus plutonium or uranium-233 for thorium reactors [U-238 transmutes into plutonium] from each fast reactor can be used to set up more such reactors and grow the nuclear capacity in tune with India’s needs for power.
The fact that PFBR will be cooled by liquid sodium creates additional safety requirements to isolate the coolant from the environment, since sodium explodes if it comes into contact with water and burns when in contact with air.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1657768
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Consider the following statements regarding Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
1.It was constituted by the President of India by exercising the powers conferred by the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 to carry out certain regulatory and safety functions under the Act.
2.It is derived from the rules and notifications promulgated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Discussions underway for nuclear plant in Andhra Pradesh’s Kovvada
The site at Kovvada was selected after carrying out extensive studies by specialised national agencies and evaluation by the Standing Site Selection Committee (SSSC), Government of India, in accordance with the criteria laid down in the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) code on site evaluation of nuclear facilities
The project remained a non-starter as the US firm, Westinghouse electric Company, almost went bankrupt in 2017. Later, as it was acquired by another firm in 2018, the talks have gained pace.
About Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
It was established in November 1983 to carry out certain regulatory and safety functions in the fields of nuclear and radiation safety on a countrywide basis.
It was constituted by President of India by exercising powers conferred by Section 27 of Atomic Energy Act, 1962 to carry out certain regulatory and safety functions under the Act. Hence statement 1 is correct
The regulatory authority of AERB is derived from rules and notifications promulgated under Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence statement 2 is correct
It is headquartered is in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
Its mission is to ensure that use of ionising radiation and nuclear energy in India does not cause undue risk to health and environment.
Currently, it consists of full-time Chairman, an ex officio Member, three part-time Members and Secretary.
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Consider the following statements regarding Indian Rhino Vision 2020
1.It is an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam, Sikkim and Meghalaya by the year 2020.
2.It has partnered with the Assam Forest Department, the Bodoland Territorial Council, the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), and the US Fish & Wildlife Service to address the threats facing Indian rhinos
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India in right direction for better future of rhinoceros: Union Environment Minister
Timely efforts by the Centre and states and stringent protection measures have revived the rhinoceros population in the country.
As per the report presented by the chief wildlife warden, there are around2657 one horned rhinos in Assam, of which Kaziranga National Park has 2413, Manas National Park 43, Orang National Park 101 and Pobitora Wild Life Sanctuary has 100 rhinos.
About Indian Rhino Vision 2020 (IRV 2020) programme
Launched in 2005
It is an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
The Indian Rhino Vision 2020 (IRV 2020) programme was launched by the Assam Forest Department in partnership with WWF-India, the International Rhino Foundation and US Fish & Wildlife Service in 2005. Hence statement 2 is correct
It aims at increasing the number and range of rhinos in Assam through wild-to-wild translocations from Kaziranga National Park and Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary to potential Protected Areas including Manas National Park, Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary, Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary, and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park.
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Consider the following statements regarding Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
1.It is a non-statutory body
2.It consists of one Chairperson, two full-time members and two part-time members.
3.The main objectives of TRAI is increase tele-density and access to telecommunication services in the country at affordable prices.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: TRAI recommends body to monitor net neutrality
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India has recommended the creation of a multi-stakeholder body (MSB) to ensure that Internet access providers adhere to the provisions of net neutrality.
MSB is required to investigate complaints regarding the violation of net neutrality.
The net neutrality principles adopted by DoT were technology-neutral and would apply equally to 5G technology.
About Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
The TRAI (Amendment) Act, 2000 had led to the reconstitution of the Authority. It consists of one Chairperson, two full-time members and two part-time . members. Also led to the establishment of Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. Hence statement 2 is correct
Goals and Objectives of TRAI:
Increasing tele-density and access to telecommunication services in the country at affordable prices. Hence statement 3 is correct
Making available telecommunication services which in terms of range, price and quality are comparable to the best in the world.
Providing a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition.
Establishing an interconnection regime that allows fair, transparent, prompt and equitable interconnection.
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Consider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020
1.It amends the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
2.The bill removes cereal, pulses, oilseed, edible oil, onion and potatoes from the list of essential commodities.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Simply Put: Redefining essential items
Rajya Sabha passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020
- About Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020
- The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020, which removes cereal, pulses, oilseed, edible oil, onion and potatoes from the list of essential commodities. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The Bill replaces an ordinance promulgated in June and amends the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It empowers the central government in terms of production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce of certain commodities under extraordinary circumstances. The extraordinary circumstances include war, famine, extraordinary price rise and natural calamity of grave nature.
- The Central government will be able to designate certain commodities including food items, fertilizers, and petroleum products as essential commodities.
- The Bill empowers the central government to regulate the stock of an essential commodity that a person can hold.
- The provisions of the bill regarding the regulation of food items and the imposition of stock limits will not apply to any government order relating to the Public Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
- Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/simply-put-redefining-essential-items-6608203/
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Sometimes the Shinkun La Tunnel is seen in news, is proposed to be built on the border between:
1.Assam and Meghalaya
2.Sikkim and West Bengal
3.Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh
4.Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (c) Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
In NEWS: Work on Shinkun La Tunnel sped up: All you need to know about the world’s longest high-altitude tunnel
National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL) under Ministry of Road, Transport & Highways has speeded up the detailed project report (DPR) work on the World’s Longest High-Altitude Shinkun La Tunnel )
The tunnel (13.5 Km long) is proposed to be built on the border between Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh. Once it is complete, the Manali-Kargil highway will remain open throughout the year. Hence option (c) is correct
The tunnel will provide all-weather road connectivity between Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in Zanskar valley.
With the construction of the tunnel, inhabitants of around 15-odd villages of Zanskar Valley in Jammu and Kashmir will be relieved since the valley remains cut off due to heavy snowfall during the winter.
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Consider the following statements regarding G4 nations group
1.The primary aim of this group is the permanent member seats on the Security Council.
2.India is a member of this group
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: G4 seeks time-bound reform of Security Council
The G4 will work with “other reform minded countries and groups” to start text based negotiations (TBN) without delay and seek “concrete outcomes” during the 75th session of the UN General Assembly
G4 Ministers reiterated support for each other’s membership to the UNSC “given the capacity and willing ness to take on major responsibilities with regard to the maintenance of international peace and security
About G4 Nations
G4 is a group comprising four member countries Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan. Hence statement 2 is correct
The group was founded in 2005.
The main aim of the G4 nations is to support each other’s bid for permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). According to the G4 nations, it is very important to expand the UNSC, in order to enhance the equitable representation of different regions such as Africa, Asia-Pacific, and Latin-America, as well the reform of UNSC will ensure the effectiveness of the organisation. Hence statement 1 is correct
G4 nations don’t have headquarter.
Opposition:
- Some countries are opposing the bids of G4 nations in UNSC. There is a movement named Uniting for Consensus, also known as Coffee Club, that developed in 1990 in opposition to the possible expansion of permanent seats in the UNSC and currently, its aim is to counter the bids for permanent seats by G4 nations in the UNSC. The countries opposing the bids of G4 nations for permanent seats in the UNSC.
- Countries opposing the bids of Brazil are Argentina, Colombia, Mexico, Peru, and Uruguay.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1.The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2.Increasing the government expenditure
3.Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country’s currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency.
- A substantial amount of foreign exchange reserves can help to cushion against any risks of currency crisis.
- The foreign current earnings of India’s IT sector and remittances from abroad would lead more inflow of foreign currencies in the economy and boost the foreign exchange Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Statement 2 is not correct as increasing the government expenditure is not related to change in foreign exchange reserves or any currency fluctuations
