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Daily Prelims Test – 22_November 2020

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding G20 summit

  • Prime Minister has termed the COVID-19 pandemic as an important turning point in history of humanity and the biggest challenge the world is facing since the World War II.
  • 15th G20 Summit convened by Iran in a virtual format
  • The G20 Leaders’ Summit would culminate in the adoption of the Leaders’ Declaration and with Saudi Arabia passing on the Presidency to Italy.
  • The Prime Minister also suggested creation of a G20 Virtual Secretariat as a follow up and documentation repository.

Answer: b) 15th G20 Summit convened by Iran in a virtual format

Explanation:

In NEWS: At G20 summit, PM Modi calls for global index for post-Covid world

  •  The Prime Minister has termed the COVID-19 pandemic as an important turning point in the history of humanity and the biggest challenge the world is facing since World War II.
  •  15th G20 Summit convened by Saudi Arabia in a virtual format. Hence option (b) is not the correct answer.
  •  The G20 Leaders’ Summit would culminate in the adoption of the Leaders’ Declaration and with Saudi Arabia passing on the Presidency to Italy.
  •  the Prime Minister also suggested creation of a G20 Virtual Secretariat as a follow up and documentation repository.

Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/at-g20-summit-pm-modi-calls-for-global-index-for-post-covid-world-11605983345729.html


Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility of Booker Prize

  • The Booker Prize awards any novel originally written in English and published in the UK and Ireland in the year of the prize, regardless of the nationality of their author.
  • It is published by a registered UK or Irish imprint and also self-published novels are eligible.
  • Scottish writer Douglas Stuart has won the 2020 Booker Prize for fiction with his debut novel Shuggie Bain

Which of the statement(s) is/are not correct?

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 3 only
  • 2 only

Answer: d) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Douglas Stuart’s ‘Shuggie Bain’ wins 2020 Booker Prize

  •  The Booker Prize awards any novel originally written in English and published in the UK and Ireland in the year of the prize, regardless of the nationality of their author. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  •  The novel must be an original work in English (not a translation)
  •  It must be published by a registered UK or Irish imprint; self-published novels are not eligible. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  •  Scottish writer Douglas Stuart has won the 2020 Booker Prize for fiction with his debut novel Shuggie Bain, which described a boy growing up in Glasgow in the 1980s with a mother battling addiction. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/books/douglas-stuarts-shuggie-bain-wins-2020-booker-prize/article33137039.ece


Consider the following statements

  • Floating Rate Bonds are fixed income instruments offered by the Government of India which come with a lock-in period.
  • Unlike regular bonds that pay a fixed rate of interest, floating rate bonds have a variable rate of interest.
  • The rate of interest of a floating rate bond is linked to a benchmark rate and is reset at a regular interval.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Repayment of ‘Government of India Floating Rate Bonds (FRB)2020’

  •  FRS bonds are fixed income instruments offered by the Government of India which come with a lock-in period. Hence statement 1 is correct
  •  Unlike regular bonds that pay a fixed rate of interest, floating rate bonds have a variable rate of interest. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  •  The rate of interest of a floating rate bond is linked to a benchmark rate and is reset at a regular interval. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  •  The interest rate risk is largely mitigated as these bonds will pay higher return when prevailing rates are high.
  •  There is no certainty of the future stream of income when investing in a floating rate bond.
  •  The best time to buy floating rate bonds is when rates are low and are expected to rise.
  •  The FRBs are not listed on any secondary exchange which means that it does not offer any interim exit to the investor.
  •  The FRS bonds are a 100% risk free investment option as interest payments on these are guaranteed by the Government of India.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1674458


Consider the following statements regarding Fisheries Sector Award

  • On the occasion of World Fisheries Day, Department of Fisheries awarded best performing States in Fisheries Sector for the first time to promote healthy competition among States.
  • For the first time in Fisheries Sector, the Government of India awarded best performing States for 2019-20 is Odisha amongst Marine states.
  • Among the hilly and North eastern states, the best state award was Assam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Department of Fisheries celebrates World Fisheries Day; Awards best performing States in Fisheries Sector for the first time to promote healthy competition among States

  •  For the first time in Fisheries Sector, the Government of India awarded best performing States for 2019-20 namely, Odisha (amongst Marine states), Uttar Pradesh (amongst Inland states) and Assam (amongst Hilly and NE states).hence statement 2 and statement 3 is correct.
  •  The Govt. also awarded best Districts for 2019-20 namely Krishna District, Andhra Pradesh as best Marine District; Kalahandi, Odisha as best Inland District; Nagaon, Assam as Best Hilly and NE District.
  •  On the occasion of World Fisheries Day, Department of Fisheries awarded best performing States in Fisheries Sector for the first time to promote healthy competition among States. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1674791


Recently, The state which has decided to ban online gaming to “avoid incidents of suicide and protect the innocent people from the evils of online gaming”. Any form of wagering or betting in cyberspace by using computers or any other communication device, common gaming houses, and any electronic transfer of funds to distribute winnings or prize money has also been banned. The above mentioned state is:

  • TamilNadu
  • Assam
  • Tripura
  • kerala

Answer: (a) TamilNadu

Explanation:

In News: Why has Tamil Nadu banned online games?

  •  Tamil Nadu Governor promulgated an ordinance that banned online gaming in the state, with a fine up to Rs 5,000 and imprisonment of up to six months. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  •  In the ordinance banning the game, the Governor said that due to online gaming, innocent people, mainly youngsters, are being cheated, and some people have committed suicide.
  •  Any form of wagering or betting in cyberspace by using computers or any other communication device, common gaming houses, and any electronic transfer of funds to distribute winnings or prize money has also been banned. This effectively means that players in the state will not be able to purchase any add-on for the games they play, go to gaming arcades or participate in online gaming tournaments. Some multiplayer games such as Counter-Strike host weekly tournaments with a buy-in of up to Rs 10,000.
  •  By banning online games and gambling, Tamil Nadu joined its neighbors Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in banning some forms of online games and gambling. The state’s neighbour on the other side, Karnataka, also has been mulling a law to ban online games and gaming.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-why-did-tamil-nadu-ban-online-games-7060247/


Consider the following statements regarding Chapare virus

  • Chapare Virus belongs to the same Arenavirus family that is responsible for illnesses such as the Ebola virus disease (EVD).
  • It is generally carried by rats and can be transmitted through direct contact with the infected rodent, its urine and droppings, or through contact with an infected person.
  • It is much more difficult to catch than the coronavirus as it is not transmissible via the respiratory route

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • 1 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In news: What is this rare Ebola-like virus that can spread from human to human?

  •  Chapare Virus belongs to the same Arenavirus family that is responsible for illnesses such as the Ebola virus disease (EVD). It causes Chapare Hemorrhagic Fever (CHHF). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  •  Chapare virus are generally carried by rats and can be transmitted through direct contact with the infected rodent, its urine and droppings, or through contact with an infected person. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  •  Chapare virus is much more difficult to catch than the coronavirus as it is not transmissible via the respiratory route. Instead, Chapare spreads only through direct contact with bodily fluids. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  •  The disease is also known to be most commonly transmitted in more tropical regions, particularly in certain parts of South America where the small-eared pygmy rice rat is commonly found.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-all-about-the-rare-ebola-like-chapare-virus-that-can-spread-from-human-to-human-7055914/


Consider the following statements

  • India and Thailand have been carrying out CORPAT along their International Maritime Boundary Line twice a year since 2005.
  • It aims to keep part of the Indian Ocean safe and secure for commercial shipping and international trade.
  • Recently, the 30th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) has been concluded in the Andaman Sea close to the Strait of Malacca.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1,2 and 3

Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

IN News: Indo-Thai Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT)

  •  India and Thailand have been carrying out CORPAT along their International Maritime Boundary Line twice a year since 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  •  It aims to keep part of the Indian Ocean safe and secure for commercial shipping and international trade. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  •  Recently, the 30th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) has been concluded in the Andaman Sea close to the Strait of Malacca. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  •  To ensure effective implementation of the United Nations Conventions on Laws of the Sea (UNCLOS).

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1674318


With respect to “Sentinel 6 satellite”, consider the following statements:

  • It is a part of the mission dedicated to measuring changes in the global sea level.
  • It is a joint collaboration of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

In News; What is the Sentinel-6 satellite and why is it important?

  •  This is a part of the next mission dedicated to measuring changes in the global sea level. Other satellites that have been launched since 1992 to track changes in the oceans on a global scale include the TOPEX/Poseidon, Jason-1 and OSTN/Jason-2, among others. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  •  The Sentinel-6 Michael Freilich satellite has been named after Dr. Michael Freilich, who was the Director of NASA’s Earth Science Division from 2006-2019 and passed away in August this year.
  •  The Copernicus Sentinel-6 Michael Freilich satellite, designed to monitor oceans, was launched from the Vandenberg Air Force base in California aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket on November 21.
  •  The mission, called the Jason Continuity of Service (Jason-CS) mission, is designed to measure the height of the ocean, which is a key component in understanding how the Earth’s climate is changing
  •  It has been developed jointly by the European Space Agency (ESA), NASA, European Organisation for the Exploitation of Meteorological Satellites (Eumetsat), the USA’s National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and the EU. Hence statement 2 is correct

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-the-sentinel-6-satellite-and-why-is-it-important-7060713/


Roridomyces phyllostachydis, recently seen in news, which is related to:

  • Seagrass in the Gulf of Mannar
  • Bioluminescent variety of mushroom from Northeast
  • Bony fish from the Western Ghats
  • Paddy frog from Northeast

Answer: b) Bioluminescent variety of mushroom from Northeast

Explanation

In News: Mystery of Meghalaya’s glowing mushrooms

  •  A mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India has led to a new discovery: a bioluminescent — or light emitting — variety of mushroom. The new species — named Roridomyces phyllostachydis — was first sighted on a wet August night near a stream in Meghalaya’s Mawlynnong in East Khasi Hills district and later at Krang Shuri in West Jaintia Hills district. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  •  It is now one among the 97 known species of bioluminescent fungi in the world. The new species was important because it was the first mushroom in the Roridomyces genus to be found in India. it was the only member in its genus to have light emitting from its stipe or stalk.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/mystery-of-meghalayas-glowing-green-mushrooms-7059942/


Consider the following statements

  • The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of office of profit
  • The above mentioned Act was amended five times
  • The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well defined in the Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • 1 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

  •  The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of office of profit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  •  The above mentioned Act was amended five times. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  •  The term ‘Office of Profit’ is notl defined in the Constitution of India. Hence statement 3 is not correct.