1. Consider the following statements
1) The ‘Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and labelling) Regulations, 2011, mandated that pre-packaged food products should include a description of food contained in the package
2) FSSAI proposed a draft Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018, highlighting certain criteria for labelling and display on the front of food packs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Food fudge: What India can do to make its front-of-pack labelling robust
● Countries have tried different labelling formats, but warning labels have emerged as the most effective in guiding consumers to make healthy food choices.
FOP Labelling in India
● The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) introduced regulations on Packaging and Labelling in 2011. Hence statement 1 is correct
● The ‘Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and labelling) Regulations, 2011, mandated that pre-packaged food products should include a description of food contained in the package along with a list of ingredients used in it. Hence statement 2 is correct
● With subsequent amendments, changes mandating format for displaying the license number, step by step regulations on trans fat, the display of warning messages such as ‘May not be nutritionally appropriate for pregnant and lactating women and children under age of 5’, and ‘Consumption of more than 3 gm shall be avoided’, the specification of gluten free food, labelling of edible oil and fat, limitations of dietary fibres in foods like flakes, noodles, pastas and savories, limitations on doses of radiation for food products like fresh fruits, vegetables, cereals and fish to inhibit ripening, delay ripening, insect disinfestation etc, the font size of the label and voluntary display of trans fat free logo, were included.
● In 2018, the FSSAI proposed a draft Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018, highlighting certain criteria for labelling and display on the front of food packs.
● Under this, the FSSAI proposed the Guiding Daily Amounts (GDA) design for FoPL with the nutrient(s) of concern (high on sugar/salt/fats) in the food product to be marked in RED.
● The FSSAI also laid down the thresholds for sugar, salt/sodium and fats for various food and beverage categories which was in line with the WHO- SEARO model.
● Faced by opposition from the industry, the FSSAI developed a modified set of thresholds in 2019 – a study done and validated based on the Indian context and environment. However, due to continued resistance from the industry, this also did not see the day of light.
2. With respect to National Anti-Profiteering Authority, Consider the following statements
1) It comes under the Finance Ministry and was established under the CGST Act.
2) The orders of the NAA can be appealed against only in the high court.
3) It consists of a chairman and four technical members
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Anti-profiteering body gets 1-year extension
● The GST Council has decided to extend the tenure of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) for one more year while an alternative will be explored in the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
● This is a second extension for the Authority whose term will now continue till November 30, 2022.
About NAA
● NAA comes under the Finance Ministry and was established under Section 171 of CGST Act. Hence statement 1 is correct
● It started working with effect from December 1, 2017.
● It was intended as a transitional arrangement with a specific time limit in view of the sudden changes in tax levels due to the introduction of GST, which was followed by periodic rationalisation.
● The law empowers NAA to determine whether reduction in rate of input tax credit (ITC) has been passed on to the consumers or not, by lowering prices. If not, then the Authority may ask for reduction of prices, levy penalty and in extreme cases can even order cancellation of registration.
● NAA consists of a chairman and four technical members. The authority needs a quorum of Chairman and three technical members. Hence statement 3 is correct
● The orders of the NAA can be appealed against only in the high court. Hence statement 2 is correct
3. Consider the following statements
1) In tropical regions, Dengue virus disease is transmitted by aedes genus mosquitoes while chikungunya is transmitted by anopheles mosquitoes.
2) All the four serotypes of dengue virus (1, 2, 3 and 4) exist in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Slight uptick as dengue cases crosses 200-mark in Delhi
● With 53 more cases of dengue recorded in the Capital over the last week, the total number of the mosquito borne infection so far this year in Delhi has crossed the 200 mark.
● Delhi, along with 10 other states, is also reporting some cases of serotype 2 dengue, which is associated with higher risk of severe disease and may result in internal bleeding or capillaries leaking out fluids resulting in a sharp drop in blood pressure.
● There are four serotypes of dengue virus – Type 1 and 3 are the milder serotypes while type 2 and 4 are associated with severe disease.
● The Capital last saw serotype 2 infections in 2015 when a large outbreak affected nearly 16,000 people and killed 60. Since then, serotype 3 caused most of the infections in Delhi.
About Dengue
● Dengue is a mosquito-borne viral infection, found in tropical and sub-tropical climates worldwide, mostly in urban and semi-urban areas.
● It is transmitted by female mosquitoes mainly of the species Aedes aegypti and, to a lesser extent, Ae. albopictus.
● These mosquitoes are also vectors of chikungunya, yellow fever and Zika viruses. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
● Dengue is widespread throughout the tropics, with local variations in risk influenced by rainfall, temperature, relative humidity and unplanned rapid urbanization.
● The virus is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti
● Other species within the Aedes genus can also act as vectors, but their contribution is secondary to Aedes aegypti.
● Mosquitoes can become infected from people who are viremic with dengue.
● Dengue is caused by a virus of the Flaviviridae family and there are four distinct, but closely related, serotypes of the virus that cause dengue (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3 and DENV-4). Hence statement 2 is correct
4. Consider the following statements regarding Dwarf Planet
1) As of now, there are officially five dwarf planets in our Solar System.
2) It is a small planetary-mass object that is in direct orbit of the Sun – something smaller than any of the eight classical planets
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:
● A new study’s “treasure map” suggests that a planet several times more massive than Earth could be hiding in our solar system, camouflaged by the bright strip of stars that make up the Milky Way.
● Planet Nine is a hypothetical planet in the outer region of the Solar System.
● Its gravitational effects could explain the unlikely clustering of orbits for a group of extreme trans-Neptunian objects (ETNOs), bodies beyond Neptune that orbit the Sun at distances averaging more than 250 times that of the Earth.
● Based on earlier considerations, this hypothetical super-Earth-sized planet would have had a predicted mass of five to ten times that of the Earth, and an elongated orbit 400 to 800 times as far from the Sun as the Earth.
● In August 2006, the International Astronomical Union broke several hearts when it announced that it had reclassified Pluto as a dwarf planet. ‘
● The decision was based on Pluto’s size and the fact that it resides within a zone of other similarly-sized objects.
● Researchers from across the globe have carried out several studies on Planet Nine and there are several theories about it, including one that stated Planet Nine could in fact be a black hole.
● Another research has argued that the unknown object causing anomalous orbits of the trans-Neptunian objects could be a primordial black hole.
● Yet another study noted that a trans-Neptunian object called 2015 BP519 had an unusual trajectory because it was affected by Planet Nine’s strong gravity.
About Dwarf Planet
● A dwarf planet is a small planetary-mass object that is in direct orbit of the Sun – something smaller than any of the eight classical planets, but still a world in its own right. Hence statement 2 is correct
● As of today, there are officially five dwarf planets in our Solar System. Hence statement 1 is correct
● The most famous is Pluto, downgraded from the status of a planet in 2006.
● The other four, in order of size, are Eris, Makemake, Haumea and Ceres. The sixth claimant for a dwarf planet is Hygiea, which so far has been taken to be an asteroid.
● These four criteria are – that the body orbits around the Sun, it is not a moon, has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit, and has enough mass for its gravity to pull it into a roughly spherical shape.
5. With respect to Facial Recognition System, Consider the following statements
1) It is a technology capable of matching a human face from a digital image or a video frame against a database of faces.
2) Telangana Police was the first law enforcement agency in the country to start using the technology in 2018
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The surveillance trap
● India has seen a rapid deployment of Facial Recognition Systems (FRS) in recent years, both by the Centre and State governments, without putting in place any law to regulate their use.
● There is a growing unabated use of this potentially invasive technology without any safeguards.
● This poses a huge threat to the fundamental rights to privacy and freedom of speech and expression of the citizens.
● States say that they are authorized by the Delhi High Court in terms of the decision in the case of ‘Sadhan Haldar vs NCT of Delhi’.
● In that particular case, the High Court had authorized the Delhi police to obtain facial recognition technology for the purpose of tracking and reuniting missing children.
● FRS may be used in the investigation in the interest of safety and security of the general public.
About Facial Recognition System
● A FRS is a technology capable of matching a human face from a digital image or a video frame against a database of faces. Hence statement 1 is correct
● It is typically employed to authenticate users through ID verification services, works by pinpointing and measuring facial features from a given image.
● Currently, 18 FRSs are in active utilisation by the Centre and State governments for the purpose of surveillance, security and authentication of identity.
● 49 more systems are in the process of being installed by different government agencies.
● Delhi Police was the first law enforcement agency in the country to start using the technology in 2018. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
● Only Telangana is ahead of Delhi at present with four facial recognition systems in active utilization for surveillance and authentication of identity.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/the-surveillance-trap/article36558729.ece
6. With reference to HELINA, Consider the following statements
1) It is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter
2) It has a minimum range of 500 m and a maximum range of 7 km.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Anti-tank missile completes all trials
The helicopter-launched Nag Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM), Helina, being developed indigenously, has completed all trials and the process for issuing of Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) by the Army has started
About HELINA
● HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). Hence statement 1 is correct
● The system has all-weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as explosive reactive armour.
● It can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode.
● It is being developed indigenously,
● It has a minimum range of 500 m and a maximum range of 7 km. Hence statement 2 is correct
HELINA Weapon Systems is being inducted into the Indian Army (IA).
● A variant of the HELINA Weapon System called DHRUVASTRA is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF).
● An Air Force version of Dhruvastra was also under development for which some trials had already been conducted. It would have an Air to Ground role other than an anti-tank role
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/anti-tank-missile-completes-all-trials/article36556641.ece
7. Consider the following statements
1) Sea cucumbers are marine invertebrates that live on the seafloor found generally in tropical regions
2) It is protected under Schedule I under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972
3) Andaman and Nicobar Island has created the world’s first conservation area for sea cucumbers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) has seized two tonnes of sea cucumber, a banned marine species, in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay areas in Tamil Nadu.
What is a Sea Cucumber?
● Sea cucumbers are an important constituent of the marine ecosystem as they play an important role in maintaining the health of the ecosystem.
● Sea cucumbers are marine invertebrates that live on the seafloor found generally in tropical regions. They’re named for their unusual oblong shape that resembles a fat cucumber. Hence statement 1 is correct
● Sea cucumbers are in high demand in China and Southeast Asia, where they are consumed as food and used in medicine.
● This endangered species is primarily smuggled from Tamil Nadu to Sri Lanka.
● By excreting inorganic nitrogen and phosphorus, they enhance the productivity of benthic animals – those living on the ocean floor.
● One of the by-products of the sea cucumber’s digestion of sand is calcium carbonate, a key component of coral reef. To survive, coral reefs must accumulate calcium carbonate, and thus sea cucumbers play a vital role in their preservation.
● Protected under Schedule I under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972 so their trade is banned. Hence statement 2 is correct
● The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change imposed a total ban on harvesting and transporting sea cucumbers in 2001.
● Lakshadweep has created the world’s first conservation area for sea cucumbers. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
● Other than the sea around Lakshadweep islands and Andaman Nicobar islands, the Gulf of Mannar at the confluence of the Indian Ocean and Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu is also home to sea cucumbers.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1756319
8. Consider the following statements regarding Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission
1) It was launched in lines with Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas
2) It is aimed at developing such rural areas by provisioning of economic, social and physical infrastructure facilities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Proposed heritage village at Singaperumal Koil under Rurban mission to boost tourism
● The Centre sanctions ₹25 lakh under the Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission. The Centre’s proposed plan to create a heritage village and boost tourism at Singaperumal Koil and nearby villages, about 40 km south of Chennai, is expected to give a much-needed fillip to the region’s development.
● The ‘Rurban Mission’ covers Singaperumal Koil and six nearby villages — Appur, Chettipuniyam, Guruvanmedu, Kolathur, Reddipalayam, and Venkatapuram.
About Rurban mission
● SPMRM was launched in 2003, is in lines with Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA). Hence statement 1 is correct
● The main aim of the mission is to bridge the gap between rural and urban population by providing equal facilities, technology, social-economic development . Hence statement 2 is correct
● The objective of the National Rurban Mission (NRuM) is to stimulate local economic development, enhance basic services, and create well planned Rurban clusters
● In terms of SPMRM, Rurban areas refer to a cluster of 15-20 villages having about 30 to 40 lakh population
The mission is a centrally sponsored scheme. The Mission has two fund streams:
● Convergence through various Central sector schemes, centrally sponsored schemes, State sector/ sponsored schemes/ programmes, CSR funds
● Critical Gap Funds (CGF)
● From the time of its inception, the Mission aims at the development of 300 Rurban clusters in five years
● These clusters would be strengthened with the required amenities, for which it is proposed that resources be mobilized through the convergence of various schemes of the Government, over and above which a Critical Gap Funding (CGF) would be provided under this Mission, for focused development of these clusters
9. Karma Puja is one of the most important Festival in:
a) Jharkhand
b) Rajasthan
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Punjab
Answer: (a) Jharkhand
Explanation:
In NEWS: Seven girls were drowned in a pond in Jharkhand’s Latehar district during “karma puja” festivities.
● The Karma puja is one of the most important festival in Jharkhand. It is performed by the Baiga, Oraon, Binjhwari and Majhwar tribes of the state.
Significance of Karma Puja:
● The spiritual and religious festival is associated with harvest, which is symbolized through a Karam tree.
● The tribal community believes that due to Karam Devta they have a good harvest.
● The festival is very auspicious and a symbol of fertility and prosperity.
● It is celebrated in the 11th moon of the Hindu month of Bhadrapada (August/September).
● Villagers go to the forest and collect the branch of Karam tree. They sing the traditional songs that praise the deity.
● They collect fruits and flowers which are essential for the Karma puja.
● Planting the tree of Karma initiates the process of Karma Puja. The branch of Karma tree is washed with milk and handia, the rice beer and then raised at the center of the dancing arena.
● Branches are decorated with garlands and curd; rice and flowers are offered by the devotees.
● Grains are filled in the red-colored baskets and offered to the branches.
● The young devotees wear barley seedlings on their head which are distributed among them.
10. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?
1) Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2) Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do.
3) Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The most important difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is that the former has a cell wall. A cell wall gives mechanical support to a plant cell.
Animal cells do not have cell walls.
Plants have both a cell wall that is made up of cell membrane (plasma membrane) and cellulose.
The cell wall is a rigid membrane matrix found on the surface of all plant cells whose primary role is to protect the cell and its content. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
