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Daily Prelims Test – 20_June 2021

Consider the following Statements regarding International Court of Justice:

  • It is the primary judicial branch of the United Nations.
  • It is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
  • It is situated in New York, USA.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

 In NEWS: India misrepresenting ICJ verdict in Jadhav case

  • Pakistan accused India of “misrepresenting” the verdict of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) in the Kulbhushan Jadhav case and asserted that it was ready to fulfil all obligations under international law.
  • India asked Pakistan to address the “shortcomings” in a Bill brought out to facilitate the reviewing of the case, adding that the proposed law did not create a mechanism to reconsider it as mandated by the ICJ.
  • About International Court of Justice
  • ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946.
  • It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague. Hence statement (1) is correct and statement (3) is incorrect.
  • It settles legal disputes between States and gives advisory opinions in accordance with international law, on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
  • It has 193 state parties 
  • The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
  • In order to ensure a measure of continuity, one third of the Court is elected every three years and Judges are eligible for re-election.
  • ICJ is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French.
  • Unlike other organs of international organizations, the Court is not composed of representatives of governments.
  • ICJ acts as a world court with two fold jurisdiction i.e. legal disputes between States submitted to it by them (contentious cases) and requests for advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by United Nations organs and specialized agencies (advisory proceedings).
  • Only States which are members of the United Nations and which have become parties to the Statute of the Court or which have accepted its jurisdiction under certain conditions, are parties to contentious cases.
  • Opinions provided by the court in advisory proceedings are essentially advisory and not binding.

Source: TH Pg:No: 7

Consider the following Statements regarding Ebola virus disease:

  • It is transmitted to people from wild animals and spreads in the human population through human to human transmission.
    • Fruit bats are natural Ebola virus hosts.
    • The first outbreak of Ebola virus disease was reported in Democratic Republic of Congo in 1976.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)1,2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Ebola outbreak in Guinea is over: WHO

  • The World Health Organization officially announced the end of Guinea’s second Ebola outbreak which was declared in February and claimed 12 lives
  • At 16 confirmed cases and seven probable infections, according to WHO figures, the limited size of the latest flare-up has been credited to experience from the 2013-16 epidemic, which killed more than 11,300 people mostly in Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone.

About Ebola virus disease

  • EVD is also called Ebola hemorrhagic fever (EHF). It is a viral hemorrhagic fever caused by the Ebolaviruses.
  • Humans get infected with the virus when they acquire direct contact with the virus through broken skin, nose, mouth, or with blood, faeces, vomit, or bodily fluids of an infected person.
  • Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.
  • Early supportive care with rehydration, symptomatic treatment improves survival. There is yet no licensed treatment proven to neutralise the virus but a range of blood, immunological and drug therapies are under development.
  • Blood or body fluids of a person who is sick with or has died from Ebola.
  • Objects that have been contaminated with body fluids (like blood, feces, vomit) from a person sick with Ebola or the body of a person who died from Ebola. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • The disease was first described in 1976 after its outbreak in DR Congo and present South Sudan. There were generally under 500 cases reported every year. Hence statement (3) is correct
  • It can be difficult to clinically distinguish Ebola from other infectious diseases such as malaria, typhoid fever, and meningitis but confirmation that symptoms are caused by Ebola virus infection are made using the following diagnostic methods:
  • ELISA (antibody-capture enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  • Antigen-capture detection tests
  • Serum neutralization test
  • Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) assay
  • Electron microscopy
  • Virus isolation by cell culture.

Source: TH Pg:No: 9

Consider the following Statements regarding removal of the governor of a state:

 

The grounds of removal of the governor are laid down in the constitution.

Dismissal by the president on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister of the country.

The Governor can be removed on the ground that he/she is out of sync with the policies and ideologies of the government.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Left, Congress also demands withdrawal of W.B. Governor

  • The Left parties and the Congress may be drifting apart with regard to their electoral alliance, but they have joined the Trinamool Congress in demanding the withdrawal of West Bengal Governor Jagdeep Dhankhar. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.
  • The Trinamool Congress has been officially demanding that Mr. Dhankhar be recalled by the Union government. Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee said she had written to Prime Minister Narendra Modi three times on the issue.
  • About Removal of the governor
  • The Governor holds the office under the pleasure of the President, his office has no fixed term. The President can remove the Governor and the grounds upon which he may be removed are not laid down in the constitution. Hence statement (1) is incorrect
  • Governors may also get transferred from one state to another by the President. He also can be reappointed.
  • The term of governor’s office is normally 5 years but it can be terminated earlier by:
  • Dismissal by the president on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister of the country. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • Dismissal of governors without a valid reason is not permitted. However, it is the duty of the President to dismiss a governor whose acts are upheld by courts as unconstitutional and malafide.
  • Resignation by the governor.

Source: TH Pg:No: 7

Consider the following Statements regarding Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas:

  • It has been published by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and climate change.
    • It is helpful in prioritizing areas to be taken up for minimizing the impact of desertification and land degradation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas released

  • Desertification and land degradation are major threats to agricultural productivity in our country. Combating desertification and land degradation is one of the thrust areas identified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Government of India, New Delhi.
  • Space Applications Centre (SAC), ISRO, Ahmedabad along with 19 concerned partner institutes has carried out an inventory and monitoring of desertification of the entire country using Indian Remote Sensing Satellites (IRS) data in Geographical Information System (GIS) environment. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
  • This Atlas presents state-wise desertification and land degradation status maps depicting land use, process of degradation and severity level. This was prepared using IRS Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) data of 2011-13 and 2003-05 time frames in the GIS
  • Areas under desertification / land degradation for both time frames and changes are reported state-wise as well as for the entire country. The outputs are helpful in prioritizing areas to be taken up for minimizing the impact of desertification and land degradationHence statement (2) is correct

Source: https://www.isro.gov.in/desertification-and-land-degradation-atlas-released

EUNAVFOR Exercise is the maiden naval exercise begun in the Gulf of Aden between which of the following two countries?

a) India and Ecuador

b) India and United States of America

c) India and Russia

d) India and European Union

Answer: (d) India and European Union

Explanation:

In NEWS: First Indian Navy, EU naval force exercise on in Gulf of Aden

  • The maiden Indian Navy and European Union Naval Force (EUNAVFOR) exercise began in the Gulf of Aden on Friday. A total of five warships from four navies were participating in the two-day exercise. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • Concurrently, a virtual “Information sharing Exercise” was conducted between the Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region and Maritime Security Centre-Horn of Africa .
  • It is the first joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and European Union Naval Force (EUNAVFOR). European Union Naval Force Somalia (EUNAVFOR) is the EU’s counter-piracy mission off the coast of Somalia.
  • Countries participating in the exercise are India, Italy, Spain and France.
  • The two-day exercisewill see high tempo-naval operations at sea, including advanced air defence and anti-submarine exercises, cross deck helicopter operations, tactical manoeuvres, boarding operations, underway replenishment, search and rescue and other maritime security operations.
  • Five warships from four navies are participating in the two-day exercise, which include Italian Navy Ship ITSCarabiniere, Spanish Navy Ship ESPS Navarra, and two French Navy Ship FS Tonnerre and FS Surcouf.
  • INS Trikand of India Navy  is participating in the exercise.
  • This engagement showcases increased levels of synergy, coordination and interoperability between IN and EUNAVFOR.
  • Significance 
  • Ships of the four navieswill endeavour to enhance and hone their war-fighting skills and their ability as an integrated force to promote, peace, security and stability in the maritime domain
  • It also underscores the shared values as partner navies, in ensuring freedom of seas and commitment to an open, inclusive and a rules-based international order.
  • Under the charter of the World Food Programme (UN WFP), EUNAVFOR and the Indian Navy converge on multiple issues including counter-piracy operations and protection of vessels deployed.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/first-indian-navy-eu-naval-force-exercise-on-in-gulf-of-aden/article34851905.ece

Consider the following Statements regarding Namami Gange Programme:

  • It is a flagship programme of the government and is implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga.
    • It works under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:

  • A tripartite Concession Agreement between National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), Kolkata Metropolitan Development Authority (KMDA) and M/s. Maheshtala Waste Water Management Private Limited was signed for the development of a 35 MLD Sewage Treatment Plant for Maheshtala on Hybrid Annuity PPP mode.

Namami Gange Programme

  • It is a flagship programme of the government and is implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and State Programme Management Groups in the states. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • NMCG is the implementation wing of the National Ganga Council established in 2016 which replaced the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
  • It works under the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • It is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 with a budget outlay of 20,000Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
  • It integrates previous and currently ongoing initiatives by enhancing efficiency, extracting synergies and supplementing them with more comprehensive & better-coordinated interventions.

The main pillars of the programme are:

  • Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure & Industrial Effluent Monitoring.
  • River-Front Development & River-Surface Cleaning
  • Bio-Diversity & Afforestation
  • Public Awareness

Ganga River System

  • The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance. 
  • Origin:It rises from the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the  
  • At Devprayag,the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda, then after, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
  • Tributaries:The Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahanada. 
  • The river finally discharges itself into the Bay of Bengal near the Sagar Island.

Consider the following Statements regarding Chief of Defense Staff:

  • It is a high military office that oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services.
    • It would come in the ambit of ‘Right to Information Act, in accordance with the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: High-level committee formed for consultations on theatre commands

  • A high-level committee consisting of representatives from the services and the Ministries concerned has been formed for wider consultations on the creation of integrated triservice theatre commands, defence officials

About Chief of Defense Staff

  • The CDS is a high military office that oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • It offers seamless tri-service views and single-point advice to the Executive.
  • The CDS will also head the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) to be created within the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and function as its Secretary.
  • He will be a four-star General office and would not be eligible to hold any government office after demitting the office of CDS.
  • The CDS would come in the ambit of ‘Right to Information Act, in accordance with the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • Roles and responsibilities
  • The CDS’s mandate includes bringing about jointness in operations, logistics, transport, training, support services and repairs and maintenance of the three services.
  • He will act as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-Services matters.
  • The CDS will also be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council chaired by the Defence Minister and Defence Planning Committee chaired by the NSA.
  • The operational control of all the theatre commands will eventually come under CDS, with the service chiefs being responsible for raising, training and sustaining their forces.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/high-level-committee-formed-for-consultations-on-theatre-commands/article34852286.ece

World Competitiveness Index 2021 is released by which of the following international organisation?

a) Institute for Management Development

b) International Monetary Fund

c) World Bank

d) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development

Answer: (a) Institute for Management Development

Explanation:

In NEWS: India maintains 43rd rank on IMD’s World Competitiveness Index

  • India maintained 43rd rank on an annual World Competitiveness Index compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD) that examined the impact of COVID-19 on economies around the world this year. Hence option (a) is correct
  • The 64-nation list was led by Switzerland, while Sweden has moved up to the second position (from sixth last year), Denmark has lost one place to rank third, the Netherlands has retained its fourth place and Singapore has slipped to the fifth place (from first in 2020).
  • The IMD World Competitiveness Ranking ranks 64 economies and assesses the extent to which a country promotes the prosperity of its people by measuring economic well-being through hard data and survey responses from executives.
  • Among the BRICS nations, India is ranked second after China (16), followed by Russia (45th), Brazil (57th) and South Africa (62th).
  • India has maintained its position for the past three years but this year, it had significant improvements in government efficiency, IMD
  • The report finds that qualities such as investment in innovation, digitalisation, welfare benefits and leadership, resulting in social cohesion have helped countries better weather the crisis the best and thus ranked higher in competitiveness.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/india-maintains-43rd-rank-on-imd-s-world-competitiveness-index-121061701110_1.html

Consider the following Statements regarding Indian Vessels Bill:

  • It will replace the Inland Vessels Act, 1917.
    • It requires all mechanically propelled vessels to be mandatorily registered.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Cabinet nod for Inland Vessels Bill

  • The Union Cabinet gave the nod to the Inland Vessels Bill, 2021, which will replace the Inland Vessels Act, 1917. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • About Indian Vessels Bill
  • The Bill provides for a unified law for the entire country, instead of separate rules framed by the States.
  • This means that the certificate of registration granted under the proposed law will be deemed to be valid in all States and Union Territories. Moreover, there will also be no need to seek separate permissions from the States.
  • The Bill provides for a central database for recording the details of vessel, vessel registration, crew on an electronic portal.
  • It requires all mechanically propelled vessels to be mandatorily registered.Hence statement (2) is correct
  • All non-mechanically propelled vessels will also have to be enrolled at district, taluk or panchayat or village level.
  • The Bill will regulate safety, security and registration of inland vessels.
  • It enlarges the definition of ‘inland waters’, by including tidal water limit and national waterways declared by the Central Government.
  • It also deals with pollution control measures of Inland Vessels. This Bill directs the Central Government to designate a list of chemicals, substances, etc. as pollutants.

About Inland Waterways:

  • India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways which comprises rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks among others.
  • About 55 million tonnes of cargo are being moved annually by Inland Water Transport (IWT), in a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly mode.
  • As per the National Waterways Act 2016, 111 waterways have been declared as National Waterways (NWs).

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-nod-for-inland-vessels-bill/article34832506.ece

The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is

a) Part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

c) Part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part

d) Part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer: (d) part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Explanation:

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution serves as a brief introductory statement of the Constitution that sets out the guiding purpose, principles, and philosophy of the Indian Constitution. It is the thinking and soul of Constitution makers and the Constituent Assembly. The preamble is based on the Objectives which were drafted and moved in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946. The Supreme Court of India originally stated in the Berubari Case (1960) presidential reference that the preamble is not an integral part of the Indian constitution, and therefore it is not enforceable in a court of law. However, the same court, in the 1973 Kesavananda case, overruled earlier decisions and recognized that the preamble may be used to interpret ambiguous areas of the constitution where differing interpretations present themselves. The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda case reiterated that the objectives given in the Preamble form a part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. In the 1995 case of Union Government vs LIC of India, the Supreme Court once again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. The Preamble is not a legally binding document. Hence option (d) is correct.