1. Consider the following statements regarding International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
1.It is not a specialized agency of the United Nations
2.India is a founder member of this ICAO
3.This organization was established by the Chicago Convention
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What the latest ICJ ruling means for Qatar and its airspace
- In June 2017, Qatar’s powerful neighbouring Arab nations of Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain and Egypt moved to sever diplomatic and economic ties with Qatar by shutting off shipping routes and air space, over Doha’s alleged support for terrorism across the region and its ties with Iran.
- Qatar, however, denies supporting Islamic extremism and has widely condemned the isolation as a clear attack on its sovereignty.
- The top United Nations (UN) court refused an appeal by Bahrain, Saudi Arabia, Egypt and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), which had challenged the authority of the International Civil Aviation Authority (ICAO) to adjudicate on the legality of the air blockade that the four nations have imposed against Qatar.
About International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
- The Chicago Convention (also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation), established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations charged with coordinating and regulating international air travel. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and Hence statement 3 is correct
- The Convention establishes rules of airspace, aircraft registration and safety, and details the rights of the signatories in relation to air travel; it also exempts air fuels from tax.
- The Convention was signed by 52 states on 7 December 1944 in Chicago, Illinois, U.S., and came into effect on 4 April 1947.
- India is one of ICAO’s founder members, having attended the Chicago Convention in 1944, and has since then, been a member of the council of the ICAO, including the Provisional ICAO between 1944 and 1947. Hence statement 2 is correct
- India has maintained a permanent delegation at the headquarters of the ICAO in Montreal.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Bathynomus raksasa
1.It is a giant isopod in the genus Bathynomus
2.They are found in the cold depths of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Raksasa cockroach from the deep: the stuff nightmares are made of
- A new creature has risen from the depths of the ocean—and it is a cockroach. A team of researchers from Singapore discovered an animal that seemed to be wearing the helmet of Darth Vader, the epic dark lord of the Star Wars.
- After two years of study, the team confirmed the discovery of a new species called ‘Bathynomus raksasa’, a “supergiant” Bathynomus, and which has since been described as the “cockroach of the sea”.
- The Bathynomus raksasa is a giant isopod in the genus Bathynomus. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The giant isopods are distantly related to crabs, lobsters, and shrimps (which belong to the order of decapods), and are found in the cold depths of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The cockroach of the sea has 14 legs but uses these only to crawl along the bed of oceans in search of food. The Darth Vader appearance is due to the shape of the cockroach’s head and compound eyes.
- The Bathynomus raksasa measures around 50 centimetres (1.6 feet) in length, which is big for isopods, which normally do not grow beyond 33 cm (just over a foot). Isopods that reach 50 cm are referred to as supergiants. The only member of the isopod species that exceeds the raksasa in size is the Bathynomus giganteus, which is commonly found in the deep waters of the western Atlantic Ocean.
3. The BlackRock , recently seen in the news is associated with which of the following?
1.Antimicrobial Resistance
2.A New collection of moon rocks
3.Techniques of removing space debris
4.A New android malware
Answer: (d) A New android malware
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What is BlackRock Android malware and are you vulnerable?
- Security firm Threat Fabric has alerted about a new malware, called BlackRock, which can steal information like passwords and credit card information from about 377 smartphone applications, including Amazon, Facebook, Gmail and Tinder. Hence option (d) is correct
- BlackRock isn’t exactly a new malware. In fact, it is based on the leaked source code of the Xeres malware, itself derived from malware called LokiBot.
- The only big difference between BlackRock and other Android banking trojans is that it can target more apps than previous malwares.
- BlackRock works like most Android malware. Once installed on a phone, it monitors the targeted app. When the user enters the login and/or credit card details, the malware sends the information to a server.
- When the malware is first launched on the device, it hides its icon from the app drawer, making it invisible to the end-user. It then asks for accessibility service privileges.
- The new malware is so powerful that it makes antivirus applications useless.
- Right now, the trojan is yet to be spotted on Google Play Store and is distributed as a fake Google Update on third-party stores.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/blackrock-android-malware-337-apps-data-privacy-6513223/
4. Consider the following statements regarding P7 Heavy Drop System
1.It is capable of para dropping heavy machinery and equipment up to 7 metric tonnes from IL 76 aircraft directly in a war zone.
2.It is a part of Make in India programme and is developed by the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM Narendra Modi’s Make in India gets boost with DRDO’s P7 Heavy Drop System
- As a part of Make in India programme, DRDO has developed P7 Heavy Drop System (HDS) which is capable of para dropping military stores ((vehicle/ ammunition/ equipment) up to 7-ton weight class from IL 76 aircraft [Ilyushin Il-76 or Gajraj (elephant king)]. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct
- System has been developed successfully with 100% indigenous resources. P-7 HDS has been inducted in the Army.
- The design of this fully indigenous system has been developed by Aerial Delivery Research and Development Establishment (ADRDE), a pioneer Research & Development (R&D) lab of DRDO based in Agra, Uttar Pradesh (UP).
- It’s platform system manufactured by L&T (Larsen & Toubro) while parachutes manufactured by Ordnance Factory.
- Parachute System is a multi-stage parachute system comprises of 5 Main canopies, 5 Brake chutes, 2 Auxiliary chutes, 1 Extractor parachute and platform is a metallic structure made up of Aluminium/steel alloys.
5. Consider the following statements
1.Monoclonal antibodies are proteins cloned in the lab to mimic antibodies produced by the immune system to counter an infection.
2.Itolizumab is a monoclonal antibody which is used to treat acute psoriasis.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Why is a psoriasis drug being used to treat COVID-19 patients?
- Recently, pharma major Biocon had received the approval of the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) to market Itolizumab for treatment of COVID-19.
- The drug will be used to treat cytokine release syndrome (CRS) in moderate to severe acute respiratory distress syndrome patients due to COVID-19. Itolizumab is a monoclonal antibody which is used to treat acute psoriasis. Hence statement 2 is correct
- In the case of COVID-19, there are yet no proven drugs to treat moderate or severe manifestations of the disease.
- Among the therapies being tested is convalescent plasma, which is a constituent of blood and recovered from those who have successfully fought the disease. This blood contains antibodies produced within a week or two of being infected.
About monoclonal antibodies:
- Monoclonal antibodies are proteins cloned in the lab to mimic antibodies produced by the immune system to counter an infection. Hence statement 1 is correct
- They have their genesis in serum, the colourless constituent of blood that contains antibodies.
- These proteins bind to an antigen, the fragment of an infectious virus in the case of SARS-CoV-2, and either destroy it or block its action.
6. Consider the following statements regarding Central Institute of Petrochemicals Engineering & Technology
1.It is a premier national institution under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
2.It was established by Government of India with the assistance of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) at Chennai.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: CIPET gets accreditation by NABL for testing and Certification of PPE kit
- Central Institute of Petrochemicals Engineering & Technology (CIPET) an apex level premium institute under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Deptt of Chemicals & Petrochemicals, has been accredited by National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL) for Testing & Certification of PPE Kit.
Central Institute of Petrochemicals Engineering & Technology (CIPET):
- CIPET is a premier national institution under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was established in 1968by Government of India with the assistance of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) at Hence statement 2 is correct
- It was formerly known as the Central Institute of Plastics Engineering & Technology (CIPET).Recently it has been renamed as the Central Institute of Petrochemicals Engineering & Technology (CIPET).
- The primary objective of CIPET has been contributing towards the growth of the plastics industry through a combined program of education and research.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1639766
7. What is the aim of PM SVANidhi scheme?
1.It is a capacity building programme for Improving Quality of School Education through Integrated Teacher Training
2.It is a special micro-credit facility plan to provide affordable loan of up to ₹10,000 to more than 50 lakh street vendors
3.It aims to use Artificial Intelligence to make learning more personalized and customized as per the requirements of the learner
4.It aims to enhance loan availability and ease the lending process for exporters and importers
Answer: (b) It is a special micro-credit facility plan to provide affordable loan of up to ₹10,000 to more than 50 lakh street vendors
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM SVANidhi app launched to help street vendors apply for micro loans
- PM SVANidhi was launched by the Urban Affairs Ministry for providing affordable working capital loan to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to lockdown
- The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) App
- It aims to provide a user-friendly digital interface for lending institutions (LIs) and their field functionaries for sourcing and processing loan applications of street vendors under the scheme. Hence option (b) is correct
- This scheme targets to benefit over 50 lakh Street Vendors who had been vending on or before 24 March, 2020, in urban areas including those from surrounding peri-urban/ rural areas.
- Under the Scheme, the vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments in the tenure of one year.
- The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme i.e. fully funded by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs with the following objectives: (i) To facilitate working capital loan up to `10,000; (ii) To incentivize regular repayment; and (iii) To reward digital transactions
8. Which of the following factors can lead to the emergence of zoonotic diseases?
1.Increased demand for animal protein
2.Rise in intense and unsustainable farming
3.Changes in food supply chains
4.Climate change crisis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1,2 and 4 only
- 2,3 and 4 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
In NEWS: 75% emerging infectious diseases zoonotic: UN Report
- About 60 per cent of known infectious diseases in humans and 75 per cent of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic, according to a new report published recently by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the International Livestock Research Institute (ILRI).
- Preventing the Next Pandemic: Zoonotic diseases and how to break the chain of transmissionwas released on July 6, 2020, celebrated as ‘World Zoonoses Day’. “It may be the worst, but it is not the first,” Inger Andersen, executive director of UNEP wrote in the foreword of the report.
- Zoonosis or zoonotic disease is a disease that has passed into the human population from an animal source directly or through an intermediary species. Zoonotic infections can be bacterial, viral, or parasitic in nature, with animals playing a vital role in maintaining such infections. Examples of zoonoses include HIV-AIDS, Ebola, Lyme Disease, malaria, rabies, West Nile fever, and the current novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) disease.
- The report discussed the context and nature of potential future zoonotic disease outbreaks, during the COVID-19 pandemic.
- It identified seven anthropogenic driving factors leading to the emergence of zoonotic diseases — increased demand for animal protein; rise in intense and unsustainable farming; the increased use and exploitation of wildlife; unsustainable utilisation of natural resources; travel and transportation, changes in food supply chains and the climate change crisis. Hence option (d) is correct
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/75-emerging-infectious-diseases-zoonotic-un-report-72173
9. Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
1.It refer to an international type of monetary reserve currency created by the World Bank
2.The SDR holdings form a component of Foreign exchange reserve of a country
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: G20 fails to reach an agreement on allocation of funds to poor nations
- G20 finance ministers under the chairmanship of Saudi Arabia, failed to reach an agreement on the possibility of allocating fresh special drawing rights (SDRs) to member countries or reallocating SDRs from rich members to countries facing a liquidity crisis because of the covid-19 pandemic.
- The G20 International Financial Architecture working group also discussed the possibility of a SDR allocation or of countries that have excess SDRs granting or lending them to countries that need them. There was no consensus on the issue
About special drawing rights (SDRs)
- SDR is a global reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), comprising the US dollar, euro, yen, sterling and yuan. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- It is allocated to members in proportion to their quota. India has 13,114 million SDRs on account of its 2.76% quota, while the US accounts for 82,994 million SDRs for its 17.45% quota. China, with 6.41%, accounts for 30,483 million SDRs. One SDR is currently valued at $1.38.
- SDR holdings are based on the countries share in world trade.
- The SDR holdings form a component of Foreign exchange reserve of a country. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The IMF uses SDRs for internal accounting purposes. SDRs are allocated by the IMF to its member countries and are backed by the full faith and credit of the member countries’ governments. The makeup of the SDR is re-evaluated every five years
10. Consider the following:
1.Carbon monoxide
2.Methane
3.Ozone
4.Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation:
Crop residues / biomass burning are cheap and easiest method to dispose the leftover crop residues (wheat, rice, sugarcane etc.) after harvesting, for land clearing and pest control. Burning of crop residues is a common approach to eliminate waste after harvesting all over the world.
Burning of these residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon (OC), methane (CH4), volatile organic compounds (VOC), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O3), and aerosols etc which affect the global atmospheric chemistry and climate. Hence option (d) is correct