Consider the following Statements regarding Acute Encephalitis Syndrome
Children and young adults are most affected by this disorder
It is characterized by high fever and brain inflammation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: First AES case of the year suspected in Muzaffarpur: Hospital source
- A child has been diagnosed with Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES), the year’s first, at a hospital in Bihar’s Muzaffarpur
- A staff member of the paediatric wards who did not want to be named. Usually AES, locally called chamki bukhar, surfaces during summer in the flood-prone districts of north Bihar.
About Acute encephalitis syndrome
- This is a serious case of mosquito-borne encephalitis and is characterized by high fever and brain inflammation. Hence statement 2 is correct
- In 2006, the WHO coined the term AES to describe a collection of pathogens that seem like one another but are hard to distinguish between them in a messy epidemic.
- Children and young adults are most affected by this disorder and can result in significant morbidity and mortality. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Viruses are the primary causal agents of AES, though bacteria, fungi, parasites, chemicals and toxins may also be present in other samples.
- The major cause of AES in India (ranging from 5% to 35%) is the Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV).
- JEV has its endemic zones running along the Gangetic plain including states of UP (east), Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
- A link between AES and litchi consumption has been postulated in Muzaffarpur case by the National Center for Disease Control of Delhi (along with the Center for Disease Control, US).
- Unripe litchi contains the toxins hypoglycin A (natural amino acid) and MCG that, when ingested in large quantities, cause vomiting.
- High summer temperatures and the humidity are considered to be the best situation for the outbreak of AES.
Consider the following Statements regarding Car-D portal
- It is a web-based portal for collection & compilation, analysis and dissemination of all the cargo and cruise movement data for Inland Waterways Authority of India
- It helps in collating real-time information on all the cargo and cruise traffic data of the National Waterway.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: PM launches ‘Mahabahu-Brahmaputra’ and lays foundation stone of two bridges in Assam
- To mark the launch of ‘Mahabahu-Brahmaputra’, he inaugurated the Ro-Pax vessel operations between Neamati-Majuli Island, North Guwahati-South Guwahati and Dhubri-Hatsingimari. He laid the foundation stone of Inland Water Transport (IWT) Terminal at Jogighopa and various tourist jetties on River Brahmaputra and launched digital solutions for Ease-of-Doing-Business.
- The Prime Minister said e-portals are being launched today for the users to get accurate information. The Car-D portal will help in collating real-time information on all the cargo and cruise traffic data of the National Waterway. It will also provide information related to the infrastructure of Waterway. He added that GIS based India Map Portal, would help those who want to come here for business.
About Car-D portal
- CAR-D is a web-based portal for collection & compilation, analysis and dissemination of all the cargo and cruise movement data for Inland Waterways Authority of India(IWAI) and its stakeholders. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Portal gives access to the data to the general public showcasing IWAI capabilities and potential of inland waterways transport.
- The Car-D portal helps in collating real-time information on all the cargo and cruise traffic data of the National Waterway. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It also provides information related to the infrastructure of Waterways.
About Inland Waterways Authority of India(IWAI)
- IWAI is a statutory body of the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India (GoI). IWAI was set up in 1986 for regulation and development of Inland Waterways for the purposes of shipping and navigation.
- IWAI is primarily responsible for development, maintenance and regulation of Inland Water Transport (IWT) on the National Waterways (NWs) in the country.
- The head office of the IWAI is at Noida
Consider the following Statements regarding Feeder separation in India
It refers to the supply of electricity to agricultural and non-agricultural consumers separately through dedicated feeders.
It ensures better load management and increased power supply to rural households and small industries.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Will the 4 ‘R’ approach give power sector a plug?
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi said on Thursday that his government’s approach for the power and renewable energy sector has been holistic and guided by four mantras — reach, reinforce, reform, and renewable energy. “For reach, last mile connectivity is needed.
- A revamped reforms-based result-linked power distribution sector scheme will be launched with an outlay of ₹3,05,984 crore over five years.
- The scheme will provide assistance to Discoms for infrastructure creation including pre-paid smart metering and feeder separation, upgradation of systems, etc., tied to financial improvements
What is Feeder Separation?
- Feeder separation refers to the supply of electricity to agricultural and non-agricultural consumers (domestic and non-domestic) separately through dedicated feeders. Hence statement 1 is correct
- This arrangement allows the distribution company to regulate power supply to agricultural consumers as and when needed for effective demand side management (DSM).
- The core objective of feeder separation is to provide regulated supply to agricultural consumers and continuous supply to non-agricultural consumers in rural areas.
- Feeder separation programmes have been successfully completed in Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh, among other states.
- Government of India has approved DDUGJY) in December, 2014 for separation of agriculture and non-agriculture feeders facilitating judicious rostering of supply to agricultural & non-agricultural consumers in the rural areas, strengthening and augmentation of sub-transmission & distribution infrastructure in rural areas, including metering at distribution transformers/feeders/consumers.
- Feeder separation under DDUGJY involves ensuring judicious rostering of supply to agricultural and non-agricultural consumers in rural areas.
- Under DDUGJY, Feeder separation includes the physical separation of high tension (HT) feeders for agricultural and non-agricultural consumers, and the virtual separation of feeders
Advantages
- It ensures better load management and increased power supply to rural households and small industries. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It helps in flattening the load curve by shifting the agricultural load to off-peak hours, thus facilitating peak load management.
- For states with low levels of metered sales, feeder segregation allows greater revenue potential for discoms as it helps in reducing the theft and technical losses that prevail in unmetered agricultural consumption.
- It also helps in reducing the peak power purchase cost through better distribution of agricultural load, leading to savings for discoms
Consider the following Statements regarding Money Bill
The Lok Sabha cannot override in case of a Money Bill
The provision of joint sitting is applicable to Money Bill
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Congress urges Speaker not to bypass Rajya Sabha by declaring 7 key Bills as ‘money bills’
- In a pre-emptive transfer, the Congress has written to Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, urging him to not bypass the Rajya Sabha by declaring seven key Payments, together with the one on privatising two public sector banks, as “cash payments”.
- The Finances session of Parliament is in recess and can resume on March 8. The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers to legislate on a “cash invoice”.
About Money Bills.
- Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills.
- Article 110(3): If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.
- As per the Supreme Court: Speaker’s decision in this regard was not beyond judicial review though the scope was extremely restricted and the extent of judicial review is yet to be constituted.
- When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the president for assent, the Speaker endorses it as a money bill.
- Rajya Sabha’s restricted powers with regard to a money bill.
- It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make recommendations.
- With regard to a money bill, President may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
- The Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject the amendments made by the Rajya Sabha on a money bill, making the Upper House’s views on the legislation irrelevant.
- The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The Lok Sabha can override in case of a money bill, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each House separately. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
- Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
- Regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
- Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
- Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
- Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure;
- The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
- Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
Source: TH
Consider the following Statements regarding TROPEX 21
- It is the largest biennial exercise conducted by Indian Navy
- The exercise was aimed at validating Indian Navy’s op philosophy across the entire spectrum of conflict-ranging from addressing low end sub- conventional challenges to high end conventional threats
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: TROPEX 21 Debrief Naval Commanders at Kochi for OP Discussions
- Admiral Karambir Singh, Chief of the Naval Staff presided over the debrief of TROPEX-21 (Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise) at Kochi.
- The exercise had commenced in January 2021 involving all three Commands of the Indian Navy, the Tri-Services Command at Port Blair, and elements of Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Coast Guard.
- The Biennial exercise is the largest exercise conducted by Indian Navy aimed to validate its concepts of war-fighting across the entire spectrum of warfare. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The exercise was spread over the vast geographical expanse of Indian Ocean and its adjunct waters, with exercise scenarios centred around the extant geopolitical situation in IOR.
- The exercise was aimed at validating Indian Navy’s op philosophy across the entire spectrum of conflict-ranging from addressing low end sub- conventional challenges to high end conventional threats. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Live combat firings of missiles and torpedoes were also undertaken from warships, aircraft and submarines in complex multi- threat scenarios
- In the first phase, the Indian Navy had conducted coastal defence exercise ‘Sea Vigil’ along the entire coastline and Island territories of India on 12-13 January 2021.
- Exercise Sea Vigil was followed by a large-scale Tri-Service joint amphibious exercise AMPHEX-21.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1699475
Sometimes the term Helina and Dhruvastra was in news, it is related to
Apache Helicopters
Fighter Jets
Mid-Air Refuelling
Anti-Tank Guided Missile Systems
Answer: (d) Anti-Tank Guided Missile Systems
Explanation:
In NEWS: Successful user trials of DRDO-developed Anti-Tank Guided Missile Systems ‘Helina’ and ‘Dhruvastra’
- Joint User Trials for Helina (Army Version) and Dhruvastra (Air Force Version) Missile Systems have been carried out from Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) platform in desert ranges. The missile systems have been designed and developed indigenously by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- Five missions were carried out for evaluating the missile capabilities in minimum and maximum range. The missiles were fired in hover and max forward flight against realistic static and moving targets. Some missions were carried out with warheads against derelict tanks. A mission was carried out against a moving target from a forward flying helicopter.
- The Helina and Dhruvastra are third generation, Lock on Before Launch (LOBL) fire and forget Anti-Tank Guided Missiles that can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. The system has all-weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as with explosive reactive armour. It is one of the most-advanced anti-tank weapons in the world. Now, the missile systems are ready for induction.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1699376
Consider the following Statements regarding UN Capital Development Fund
It was established by the United Nations General Assembly
It aims to provide microfinance access to Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Indian-origin Preeti Sinha to lead United Nations Capital Development Fund
- The UN Capital Development Fund has appointed Indian-origin investment and development banker Preeti Sinha as its Executive Secretary, whose focus will be on providing micro-finance assistance to women, youth, small and medium-sized enterprises in under-served communities.
About UN Capital Development Fund (UNCDF):
- It was established by the United Nations General Assembly(UNGA) in 1966. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It aims to provide microfinance access to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). It will unlock the full potential of public and private finance in these countries. Hence statement 2 is correct
- UNCDF is an autonomous, voluntarily funded UN organization affiliated with UNDP. Its funding comes from UN member states, foundations, and the private sector.
- Headquarters: New York, United States.
- UNCDF’s financing models work through two channels:
- Financial Inclusion: It expands the opportunities for individuals, households, and small businesses to participate in the local economy. Moreover, it provides them with the tools to climb out of poverty and manage their financial lives.
- Localised Investments: It shows how fiscal decentralization, innovative municipal finance, and structured project finance can drive public and private funding that underpins local economic expansion and sustainable development.
Consider the following Statements regarding Cost Estimator
- It is an online tool that estimates the real-time health impact and economic cost of fine particulate matters (PM 2.5) in major world cities
- It was deployed in a collaboration between Greenpeace Southeast Asia, IQAir and the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: ‘54,000 lives lost in Delhi due to air pollution’
- Air pollution claimed approximately 54,000 lives in Delhi in 2020, according to a Greenpeace Southeast Asia analysis of cost to the economy due to air pollution. Six Indian cities — Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad and Lucknow — feature in the global analysis.
- Globally, approximately 1,60,000 deaths have been attributed to PM 2.5 air pollution in the five most populous cities — Delhi, Mexico City, Sao Paulo, Shanghai and Tokyo.
- According to the report, the ‘Cost Estimator’, an online tool that estimates the real-time health impact and economic cost from fine particulate matter (PM 2.5) air pollution in major world cities. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was deployed in a collaboration between Greenpeace Southeast Asia, IQAir and the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA). Hence statement 2 is correct
- Using real-time ground-level PM 2.5 measurements collated in IQAir’s database, the algorithm applies scientific risk models in combination with population and public health data to estimate the health and economic costs of air pollution exposure.
- To show the impact of air pollution-related deaths on the economy, the approach used by Greenpeace is called ‘willingness-to-pay’ — a lost life year or a year lived with disability is converted to money by the amount that people are willing to pay in order to avoid this negative outcome
Consider the following Statements regarding Charminar
- It is a massive arch built by Mohammed Quli Qutab Shah in 1591 to commemorate the end of the plague in the city.
- It is declared a centrally protected monument under the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Alarm over sewerage work near Charminar
- Hyderabad’s iconic landmark Charminar faces one more vibration test as the Hyderabad Metro Water Supply and Sewerage Board is relaying the botched pipeline near the monument.
- The sewerage line has been repaired a few months earlier on the south-western side of the monument due to water stagnation problem.
- The civic body has deployed an earthmover-powered pneumatic drill to tear the cobblestone flooring and the six-inch reinforced concrete base to reach the old pipeline buried five feet below ground.
- When the pipeline was laid earlier, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) raised an alarm over the proximity of the earthen work to the stone-and-limestone Charminar built nearly 430 years ago.
- The ASI officials said the seepage from pipeline and capillary action of limestone will prove disastrous for the long-term structural stability of the monument.
About Charminar
- The Charminar was built in 1591 by Mohd. Quli Qutb Shah, the fourth king of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, which also built the historic Golconda fort. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The 428-year-old monument was built as the foundation of Hyderabad, which founded by Mohd. Quli Qutb Shah, after he decided to shift outside the Golconda fort.
- The monument is a magnificent square edifice of granite, built upon four grand arches facing North, South, East and West. These arches support two floors of rooms and gallery of archways.
- At each corner of the square structure is a minaret rising to a height of 24 meters, making the building nearly 54 meters tall. It is these four (char) minarets (minar) that give the building, its name ‘Charminar’. Each minar stands on a lotus-leaf base, a special recurrent motif in Qutub Shahi buildings
- The first floor was used as a madarasa (college) during the Qutub Shahi period. The second floor has a mosque on the western side, the dome of which is visible from the road, if one stands some distance away.
- It is declared a Centrally protected monument under the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904. Hence statement 2 is correct
The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to
social reforms
educational reforms
reforms in police administration
constitutional reforms
Answer: (d) constitutional reforms
Explanation:
- On 20th August, 1917 Lord Montague, the Secretary of State for India, made the following declaration in British Parliament: “ The Policy of His Majesty’s government… is that of increasing association of Indians in every branch of administration, and the gradual development of selfgoverning institutions, with a view to the progressive realization of responsible government in India as an integral part of the British empire.
- Importance of Montagu’s Statement- From now onwards, the demand by nationalists for selfgovernment or Home Rule could not be termed as seditious since attainment of self-government for Indians now became a government policy, unlike Morley’s statement in 1909 that the reforms were not intended to give self-government to India.
