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Daily Prelims Test – 20 August

1.Consider the following statements regarding Self-regulatory organisations

  1. It is a non-governmental organisation that sets and enforces rules and standards relating to the conduct of entities in the industry.
  2. It shall be set-up as a not-for-profit company under the Companies Act.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:RBI issues draft rules for payment sector regulations

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued draft guidelines for establishing self-regulatory organisations (SROs), which will be responsible for framing and enforcing rules for payment systems operators.
  • As the payment ecosystem matures and as the number of payments systems proliferate, it becomes necessary to optimally use regulatory resources to develop industry standards.
  • About Self-regulatory organisations (SROs):
  • An SRO is a non-governmental organisation that sets and enforces rules and standards relating to the conduct of entities in the industry.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • SRO shall be set-up as a not-for-profit company under the Companies Act.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • These will collaborate with all stakeholders in framing rules and regulations.
  • Their self-regulatory processes will be administered through impartial mechanisms.
  • It shall serve as a two-way communication channel between its members and RBI.
  • It will work towards establishing minimum benchmarks, standards and help instil professional and healthy market behaviour among its members.
  • The recognised SRO shall promptly inform RBI about any violation that comes to its notice of the provisions of the Payments and Settlement Systems Act or any other regulation.
  • The organisation will establish a uniform grievance redressal and dispute management framework for its members.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/business-news/rbi-issues-draft-rules-for-payment-sector-regulations/story-ptAunWUVNUdAPj7SXL6sDJ.html

2.Consider the following statements regarding East Kolkata Wetland

  1. It is not included in the Ramsar list of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’.
  2. It hosts the largest sewage fed aquaculture in the world.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:East Kolkata Wetlands: NGT warns officials for violating waste dumping norms

  • Urban local bodies (ULB) were warned of punishment by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) for failing to comply with its order over waste disposal at the internationally acclaimed East Kolkata Wetlands. They were accused of illegally dumping waste and contaminating water bodies in the area.
  • West Bengal’s environment department and the ULBs in the eastern fringe of Kolkata were told by the court their officials could receive civil imprisonment, withholding salaries and payment of penalties.

About East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW)

  • The East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW), located on the eastern fringes of Kolkata city bordering the Salt Lake township on the one hand and the new township at Rajarhat on the other, forms one of the largest assemblages of sewage fed fish ponds.
  • The EKW nurtures the world’s largest wastewater fed aqua culture system. Sewerage that is sent to the wetlands are subjected to solar purification followed by natural oxidation by which the water become conducive for algal and plankton growth which are the primary feed of fishes.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • On 19th August, 2002 the EKW was included in the Ramsar list of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’. However, because of increasing pressure of urbanization, change in the quality and quantity of the solid waste and sewer, as also human neglect, this site is under threat from various directions.Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • The wetlands cover 125 square kilometres and include salt marshes, as well as agricultural fields, sewage farms and settling ponds.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/east-kolkata-wetlands-ngt-warns-officials-for-violating-waste-dumping-norms-72872

3.Consider the following statements regarding Microplastics

  1. They are small plastic pieces typically smaller than 5 millimeters in diameter.
  2. They do not readily break down into harmless molecules.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:Atlantic Ocean contains 10 times more microplastics than previously thought: Study

  • The Atlantic Ocean contains 12-21 million tonnes of microplastics — about 10 times higher than previously determined — according to a new research published in Nature Communications.
  • The study, published August 18, 2020, is the first to measure concentration of invisible microplastics across the entire Atlantic — from the United Kingdom to the Falklands.
  • The figure is only for the three of the most common types of plastic litter.  About 17 million tonnes of all plastic waste has entered the Atlantic Ocean over the past 65 years.
  • The study measured pollution from three plastic types commonly used for packaging — polyethylene, polypropylene, and polystyrene — at 12 locations across a 10,000 kilometre stretch of the Atlantic Ocean.

About Microplastics

  • Microplastics are small plastic pieces typically smaller than 5 millimeters in diameter. Plastic is the most ubiquitous type of marine debris found in oceans and other water bodies.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The debris can be of any size and shape, but those which are less than 5 mm in length (or about the size of a sesame seed) are called microplastics.
  • Microplastics kill biodiversity and other organisms fish before they reach reproductive age.
  • It lead to stunted growth and behaviour change in some organisms.
  • Microplastics are found in the viscera of dead sea birds, reptiles like turtles, whales etc.
  • A large quantities of plastic are not recycled and enter landfill.
  • Microplastics are either manufactured — for instance, microbeads that are used in cosmetics and beauty products — or they are formed when larger pieces of plastic break down.
  • The small, shiny particles advertised as “cooling crystals” in certain toothpastes qualify as microplastics if the ingredients of the toothpaste mention “polyethylene”.
    • Even so, manufactured microbeads are not a major contributor to microplastic pollution.
  • The problem with microplastics is that, like plastic items of any size, they do not readily break down into harmless molecules.Hence statement 2 is correct

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/atlantic-ocean-contains-10-times-more-microplastics-than-previously-thought-study-72927

4.Consider the following statements regarding National Recruitment Agency

  1. It will be a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act
  2. It will conduct the Common Eligibility Test (CET) for recruitment to non-gazetted posts in government and public sector banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:Explained: How the National Recruitment Agency will streamline the recruitment process

  • The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has decided to set up a National Recruitment Agency (NRA). The proposed NRA will conduct a common preliminary examination for various recruitments in the central government.
  • About National Recruitment Agency
  • NRA will be a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, headed by a Chairman of the rank of the Secretary to the Government of India.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • It will organise a CET to screen/shortlist candidates for the Group B and C (non -technical) posts, which are now being conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Railways Recruitment Board (SSC) and Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). 
  • It is envisioned that the NRA would be a specialist body bringing the state-of-the-art technology and best practices to the field of Central Government recruitment.
  • The NRA will conduct the Common Eligibility Test (CET) for recruitment to non-gazetted posts in government and public sector banks.Hence statement 2 is correct
    • The Common Eligibility Test will be held twice a year.
  • There will be different CETs for graduate level, 12th Pass level and 10th pass level to facilitate recruitment to vacancies at various levels.
    • The CET will be conducted in 12 major Indian languages. This is a major change, as hitherto examinations for recruitment to Central Government jobs were held only in English and Hindi.
    • This test aims to replace multiple examinations conducted by different recruiting agencies for selection to government jobs advertised each year, with a single online test.
  • The CET score of a candidate shall be valid for a period of three years from the date of declaration of the result.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/national-recruitment-agency-nra-government-jobs-6561491/#:~:text=The%20Union%20Cabinet%20chaired%20by,recruitments%20in%20the%20central%20government.

5.Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 15 
  3. Article 16 
  4. Article 17

Answer: (c) Article 16

Explanation:

In NEWS:Domicile-based job quota: the law, SC rulings, and special cases

The Madhya Pradesh government’s recent decision to reserve all government jobs for “children of the state” raises questions relating to the fundamental right to equality.

What does the Constitution say?

  • Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.Hence option (a) is correct.
  • Article 16(2): States that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State.
  • Exception: Article 16(3) of the Constitution, however, provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures.
  • The Supreme Court has ruled against reservation based on place of birth or residence. In 1984, ruling in Dr Pradeep Jain v Union of India, the issue of legislation for “sons of the soil” was discussed. The court expressed an opinion that such policies would be unconstitutional but did not expressly rule on it as the case was on different aspects of the right to equality
  • Exercising the powers it has under Article 16(3), Parliament enacted the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act, aimed at abolishing all existing residence requirements in the states and enacting exceptions only in the case of the special instances of Andhra Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/domicile-based-job-quota-the-law-sc-rulings-and-special-cases-6561814/

6.Consider the following statements regarding National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL)

  1. It is India’s first largest aerospace firm. 
  2. It was initially established by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) at Delhi.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:Govt steps up support to space startups; to incubate, mentor for product development, validation, more

  • The global space economy is pegged at $360 billion of which the Indian space economy is around 2 per cent valued at $7 billion currently.
  • National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) and Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Aerospace Laboratories (CSIR-NAL) have joined hands to establish an Innovation-cum-Incubation Centre with external private funding to promote start-ups in the field of Aerospace technologies.
  • Under this program start-ups in the area of Aerospace engineering would be incubated, mentored and supported for product and prototype development and their validation.

About National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL)

  • National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), is India’s first largest aerospace firm. It was established by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) at Delhi in 1959 and its headquarters was later moved to Bangalore in 1960.Hence statement 1 is correct and Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The firm closely operates with HAL, DRDO and ISRO and has the prime responsibility of developing civilian aircraft in India. 
  • The CSIR-NAL mandate is to develop aerospace technologies with strong science content, design and build small and medium-sized civil aircraft, and support all national aerospace programmes.

Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/sme/govt-steps-up-support-to-space-startups-to-incubate-mentor-for-product-development-validation-more/2059632/

7.Consider the following statements regarding Guru Granth Sahib

  1. It is the central religious scripture of Sikhs
  2. It is written only in the gurmukhi script

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:PM Modi extends greetings on Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Granth Sahib

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Wednesday extended his best wishes to people on the first Parkash Purab of the Sri Guru Grant Sahib Ji.
  • The first Prakash Purab Utsav marked the installation of Guru Granth Sahib in Harmandir Sahib, also known as the Golden temple, in 1604.
  • Guru Granth Sahib is the central religious scripture of Sikhs. It is regarded by Sikhs as the final, sovereign and eternal living Guru following the lineage of the ten human gurus of the religion. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The Adi Granth, its first rendition, was compiled by the fifth Guru, Guru Arjan (1563–1606).
  • Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru, did not add any of his own hymns; however, he added all 115 hymns of Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru, to the Adi Granth and affirmed the text as his successor. This second rendition became known as Guru Granth Sahib and is sometimes also referred to as Adi Granth.
  • The Guru Granth Sahib is written in the Gurmukhi script, in various languages, including Lahnda, Braj Bhasha, Kauravi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, and Persian.Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Source: http://newsonair.com/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=397717

8.Consider the following statements regarding Lingaraja Temple

  1. It is built in red stone.
  2. It is a classic example of Kalinga style of architecture.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Odisha government chalks out plan for peripheral development of Lingaraj Temple

The Odisha government has chalked out a plan for peripheral development of the 11th century Shree Lingaraj Temple here to attract more tourists to the state capital during the post pandemic period.

The efforts will be to create a spiritual and ecological ambience in and around the Lingaraj Temple.

The redevelopment plan of the peripheral area of the temple, known as ‘EkamravanKshetra’, in Bhubaneswar, has been approved.

About Lingaraj Temple

  • Lingaraj Temple, built in 11th century AD, is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is considered as the largest temple of the city Bhubaneswar.
  • It is believed to have been built by the Somvanshi King Yayati I.
  • The main tower of this temple measures 180-feet in height.
  • It is built in red stone. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • It is a classic example of Kalinga style of architecture.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The temple is divided into four sections―Garbh Griha (sanctum sanctorum), Yajna Shala (the hall for prayers), Bhoga Mandap (the hall of offering) and the Natya Shala (hall of dance).
  • The sprawling temple complex has one hundred and fifty subsidiary shrines.
https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/lYUUGGLgQcre_kTA53GxiY2Em1Pu_Y0_-tEQZvRVL_NUwSLUQdXyINxDbdEsxX0ETsmL0pE2XH_ytlm2NnD7G2dNb_73zNLOwxs3_gTQ0f5VLJ4mghxXD-cRwgUc_0DlPcHlr472EOHi3SPXvg

Source: http://newsonair.com/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=397717

9.Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge’:

  1. It seeks to invite innovators, startups and students to use these microprocessors to develop various technology products
  2. It has been announced by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS:Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad launches “Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge” to realize the ambition of self-reliance and a momentous stride towards “Atmanirbhar Bharat”

  • Union Minister of Law & Justice, Communications and Electronics & Information Technology, launched today “Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge- Innovate Solutionsfor #Aatmanirbhar Bharat” to provide further impetus to the strong ecosystem of Start-up, innovation and research in the country.
  • IIT Madras and Center for Development of Advance Computing (CDAC) have developed two microprocessors named SHAKTI (32 bit) and VEGA (64 bit) respectively using Open Source Architecture under the aegis of Microprocessor Development Programme of Ministry of Electronics and IT. 
  • “Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge- Innovate Solutions for #Aatmanirbhar Bharat” seeks to invite innovators, startups and students to use these microprocessors to develop various technology products.Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has announced ‘Swadeshi Microprocessor Challenge’ to provide further impetus to the Start-up ecosystem, innovation and research in the country.Hence statement 2 is correct
  • The design, development & fabrication of these state-of-the-art processor variants is the successful step to leapfrog to the ultimate goal of the vibrant ecosystem of Electronic System Design & Manufacturing in the country.
  • It is open to students at all levels and startups.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1646676

  1. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
  2. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
  3. The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
  4. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
  5. It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

Explanation:

  • Under the Solid Waste Management, Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years. Hence, rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for identification of landfill sites and waste processing facilities. Hence option C is correct.
  • Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.