Consider the following statements regarding Channapatna toys
- The origin of these toys can be traced to the reign of Tipu Sultan
- They are a particular form of wooden toys that are manufactured in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka state
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Far from a happy toy story: Traditional toy makers face Chinese goods, high GST and lack of funds
- Notwithstanding Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s mention of the brightly coloured Channapatna toys in his ‘Mann Ki Baat’ programme in August and emphasis on the promotion of locally manufactured toys, Kaleem isn’t sure if the industry can return to its heyday anytime soon.
- PM said that while the global toy industry is worth over ₹7 lakh crore, India’s share in it is minimal despite its wide variety of traditional and unique toys.
- This industry has tremendous potential and can provide employment to lakhs of people, according to market estimates.
- While the Prime Minister says India has the potential to become a hub for the global toy industry, artisans face a range of problem
Challenges to the handicraft toy industry
- Demonetisation in 2016 and imposition of a 12% Goods and Services Tax (GST)
- The lockdown
- The Chinese toys
- The absence of innovation
- Use of chemical dyes
About Channapatna toys
- Channapatna toys are a particular form of wooden toys (and dolls) that are manufactured in the town of Channapatna in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka state, India. Hence statement 2 is correct
- This traditional craft is protected as a geographical indication (GI) under the World Trade Organization, administered by the Govt. of Karnataka.
- Traditionally, the work involved lacquering the wood of the Wrightia tinctoria tree, colloquially called Aale mara (ivory-wood).
- The woodwork is colored using vegetable dyes
- The origin of these toys can be traced to the reign of Tipu Sultan who invited artisans from Persia to train the local artisans in the making of wooden toys. Hence statement 1 is correct
Consider the following statements regarding seaplane project in india
- It is a part of a directive of the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- The water aerodrome is a listed project/activity in the Schedule to the Environmental Impact Assessment Notification, 2006
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What is India’s first seaplane project and how will it function?
- In Kevadia, the proposed Terminal will be spread over 0.51 acres in the premises of the Sardar Sarovar Narmada Nigam Ltd., located in the Panchmuli lake (Dyke 3) of the Sardar Sarovar Dam at Limdi village.
- The first seaplane project of the country is part of a directive of the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- Under the directive, the Airports Authority of India (AAI) requested state governments of Gujarat, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the administration of Andaman & Nicobar to propose potential locations for setting up water aerodromes to boost the tourism sector.
What is India’s first seaplane project?
- The first seaplane project of the country is part of a directive of the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation. As per the directive, the Airports Authority of India (AAI) requested state governments of Gujarat, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the administration of Andaman & Nicobar to propose potential locations for setting up water aerodromes to boost the tourism sector. Hence statement 1 is correct
- A seaplane is a fixed-winged aeroplane designed for taking off and landing on water. It offers the public the speed of an aeroplane with the utility of a boat. There are two main types of seaplane: flying boats (often called hull seaplanes) and floatplanes
- Implications of India’s First Seaplane Project on Environment
- The water aerodrome is not a listed project/activity in the Schedule to the Environmental Impact Assessment Notification, 2006 and its amendments. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- The Expert Appraisal Committee was of the opinion that the activities proposed under the water aerodrome project may have a similar type of impact as that of an airport.
- In Narmada, the Shoolpaneshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is located at an approximate aerial distance of 2.1 km from the proposed project site which serves local sensitive species of fauna.
- The bathymetric and hydrographic survey was conducted by Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) before finalising Dyke 3, which is a rock-filled pond and popularly called the ‘Magar Talav’ as it is infested with crocodiles.
Consider the following statements regarding red-headed vulture
- It is an Old World vulture mainly found in the Indian subcontinent
- It is listed as an ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Critically endangered Asian king vultures sighted in Sigur plateau
- The sighting of a pair of critically endangered Asian king vultures and a juvenile in the Sigur plateau is a cause for optimism that the species may be re-establishing itself in the region, experts say. The population of the Asian king vulture, like most vulture species in India, has crashed over the last five decades.
About Asian King Vultures
- It is also known as the Red-headed Vulture, Indian black vulture or Pondicherry vulture.
- It is an Old World vulture mainly found in the Indian subcontinent, with small disjunct populations in some parts of Southeast Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- It is not a migrant bird but a resident species in the Indian subcontinent except Sri Lanka.
Consider the following statements regarding INS Chennai
- It is the third ship of the Kolkata-class stealth guided missile destroyers
- It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and Barak-8 long range surface-to-air missiles.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: BrahMos missile test-fired from destroyer INS Chennai in Arabian Sea
- The DRDO said the missile which was fired from INS Chennai in the Arabian Sea hit the target successfully with pin-point accuracy after performing high-level and extremely complex manoeuvres.
- India successfully test fired the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile from the indigenously-built stealth destroyer INS Chennai, with the weapon hitting a pre-designated target in the Arabian Sea
- The 290-km range missile — an Indo-Russian joint venture — has land, air and naval variants. The missile has a top speed of Mach 2.8 — nearly three times the speed of sound.
About INS Chennai
- INS Chennai (D65) is the third ship of the Kolkata-class stealth guided missile destroyers of the Indian Navy. She was constructed at Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) located in Mumbai. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Commissioned into the navy in November 2016, the 7,500-tonne INS Chennai incorporates new design concepts for improved survivability, stealth and manoeuvrability.
- INS Chennai is the last of the three ships built under the code name Project 15A
- It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and Barak-8 long range surface-to-air missiles. Hence statement 2 is correct
- INS Chennai, along with INS Sunayna was sent to the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman in June 2019 to protect Indian shipping interests amid tensions in the Strait of Hormuz
- The indigenously designed ship has state of the art weapons and sensors, stealth features, an advanced action information system, a comprehensive auxiliary control system, world class modular living spaces, sophisticated power distribution system and a host of other advanced features.
Global Tuberculosis Report is released by which of the following international organization?
- World health organization
- United Nations Children’s Fund
- Doctors without Borders
- Amnesty International
Answer: (a) World health organization
Explanation:
In NEWS: Tuberculosis notifications in 2020 down by 25% in India, global report says
- According to Global Tuberculosis Report 2020, the COVID-19 pandemic, combined with impacts on care-seeking behaviour, threatens to reverse the recent progress in reducing the global burden of tuberculosis (TB) disease. The World Health Organization (WHO) has published a global TB report every year since 1997. Hence option (a) is correct
- The evidence from several high TB burden countries of large reductions in the monthly number of people with TB being detected and officially reported in 2020 is available.
- India accounts for 26% of TB cases in the world and the TB notifications during the period January-June 2020 in India fell by 25% compared to the same period in 2019.
- The dip in TB notifications has not been very sharp in India and the recovery after the dip has been more in India than Indonesia, Philippines and South Africa.
- In India, notifications of people newly diagnosed with TB increased 74% from 1.2 million to 2.2 million between 2013 and 2019.
- In the case of India, there is a gap in the number of people newly diagnosed and reported due to a combination of underreporting of people diagnosed with TB and under-diagnosis.
The Eighth Edition of SLINEX-20 is a bilateral maritime exercise between:
- India and Singapore
- India and South Korea
- India and Srilanka
- India and Sydney
Answer: (c) India and Srilanka
Explanation:
In NEWS: SLINEX-20: India, SL begin eighth edition of bilateral maritime exercise
- SLINEX series of exercise emphasises the deep engagement between India and Sri Lanka which has strengthened mutual cooperation in the maritime domain. SLINEX series of exercise emphasises the deep engagement between India and Sri Lanka which has strengthened mutual cooperation in the maritime domain.
- The eighth edition of the annual Indian Navy (IN) – Sri Lanka Navy (SLN) bilateral maritime exercise SLINEX-20 is scheduled off Trincomalee, Sri Lanka from October 19 to 21. Hence option (a) is correct
- SLINEX-20 aims to enhance inter-operability, improve mutual understanding and exchange best practices and procedures for multi-faceted maritime operations between both navies.
- In addition, the exercise will also showcase capabilities of our indigenously constructed naval ships and aircraft. Surface and anti-air exercises including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions, manoeuvres and cross deck flying operations are planned during the exercise, which will further enhance the high degree of inter-operability already established between the two friendly navies
- The exercise is being conducted in a non-contact ‘at-sea-only’ format in the backdrop of COVID-19 pandemic
Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission
- It is a constitutional body and is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution
- The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding upon the government
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: GST cess will stay: finance panel chief
- The levy of compensation cess on Goods and Services Tax (GST) may have to be extended for quite a few years, perhaps till as late as 202526, to pay off States’ GST dues, Chairperson of the Fifteenth Finance Commission N.K. Singh has said
- The Commission’s report on the devolution of funds between the Centre and the States for the five year period of 202122 till 2025- 2026, will be submitted to the government soon.
About Finance Commission of India
- Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
- It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the Indian President. It was created to define the financial relations between the Centre and the states. It was formed in 1951. President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every five years or on time considered necessary by him. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh.
- The 15th Finance commission makes recommendations for the period of 2020-2025 (5 years). The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are of an advisory nature only and therefore, not binding upon the government. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Finance Commission makes recommendations to the president of India on the following issues:
- The net tax proceeds distribution to be divided between the Centre and the states, and the allocation of the same between states.
- The principles governing the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre out of the consolidated fund of India.
- The steps required to extend the consolidated fund of a state to boost the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities of the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the state Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal
- It is a specialized body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010
- It is mandated to dispose the cases within one year of their respective appeals.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The hues in the green tribunal’s resilient journey
Over 10 years, the NGT has made a difference to environmental protection, helped by a new tribe of legal practitioners
National Green Tribunal:
- It is a specialized body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is comprises of the Chairperson, the Judicial Members and Expert Members.
- They shall hold office for term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment.
- The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of India. The Chairperson of NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.
- The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- NGT provides a way for the evolution of environmental jurisprudence through the development of an alternative dispute resolution mechanism.
- It helps in reduction of the litigation burden on environmental matters in the higher courts.
- NGT provides a faster solution for various environment-related disputes that are less formal and less expensive.
It resolves various civil cases under the following seven laws that are related to the environment:
- Water Act (Prevention and Control of Pollution), 1974
- Water Cess Act (Prevention and Control of Pollution), 1977
- Forest Act (Conservation), 1980
- Air Act (Prevention and Control of Pollution), 1981
- Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
- Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Consider the following statements
- Skinks are non-venomous, highly alert, fast moving and small vertebrates.
- India is home to 62 species of skinks and about 33 species are endemic to India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Celebrating skinks, ZSI lists 62 species in India
- Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) brought a study on skinks (a kind of lizard), titled Skinks of India.
- A recent publication by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) reveals that India is home to 62 species of skinks and says about 57% of all the skinks found in India (33 species) are India is home to less than 4% of the skinks across the globe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is the largest family of lizards,having long bodies, relatively small or no legs, no pronounced neck and glossy scales.
- It is found around homes, garages, and open spaces such as sparks and school playgrounds, and around lakes.
- Skinks are non-venomous, highly alert, agile and fast movingand actively forage for a variety of insects and small invertebrates. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- They have a prominent role in maintaining ecosystems,however, not much is known about their breeding habits, and ecology because identification of the species can be confusing.
With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
- It is spread over two districts.
- There is no human habitation inside the Park
- It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The DNP is the most important site for the long-term survival of the Globally Threatened Great Indian Bustard and other endemic fauna and flora. Hence statement 3 is correct
There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. These communities have inhabited this area for hundreds of years and with their rich culture and tradition they are an integral part of this ecosystem. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
