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Daily Prelims Test – 19_June

1.Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court

  • It has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes.
  • India is a member of the ICC.
  • It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: The US sanctions against International Criminal Court: How things got here

  • The International Criminal Court (ICC) was established as a court of last resort to prosecute offences that would otherwise go unpunished. It has jurisdiction over four crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
  • The turbulent relationship between the US and the International Criminal Court (ICC) further exacerbated, after President Donald Trump authorised sanctions against ICC officials involved in investigations into possible war crimes by US troops or those of its allies.

About International Criminal Court

  • The ICC, a permanent judicial body based at The Hague in the Netherlands, was created by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (its founding and governing document), and began functioning on 1 July 2002 when the Statute came into force.
  • The forum was established as a court of last resort to prosecute offences that would otherwise go unpunished, and has jurisdiction over four main crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggressionHence statement 1 is correct
  • 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognise the ICC’s authority; the notable exceptions being the US, China, Russia, and India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
  • Unlike the International Court of Justice (ICJ), the ICC is not part of the United Nations system, with the UN-ICC relationship being governed by a separate agreement. The ICJ, which is among the UN’s 6 principal organs, mainly hears disputes between nations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • The ICC is intended to complement existing national judicial systems and it may therefore only exercise its jurisdiction when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual states refer investigations to the Court

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-the-us-has-approved-sanctions-against-international-criminal-court-6460199/

2.Consider the following statements regardingKhelo India Programme

  • It provides for grant of financial assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs per annum for a period of 8 consecutive years for selected sportspersons.
  • It is an initiative of Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Aizawl’s Rajiv Gandhi Stadium to be upgraded as KISCE under Khelo India Scheme

  • The Union Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju  announced that Aizawl’s Rajiv Gandhi Stadium will be upgraded as Khelo India State Centre of Excellence under the Khelo India Scheme.
  • The Ministry plans to establish one KISCE in each state and union territory, with an effort to create a robust sporting ecosystem in the entire country.
  • In the first phase, the Ministry has identified state-owned sports facilities in eight states of India: Karnataka, Odisha, Kerala, Telangana, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram and Nagaland which will be upgraded into KISCE.

About Khelo India Programme

  • Khelo India Programme is a brain child of the PM Modi and a national scheme for the development of sports in India.
  • It was launched in the year 2018 and is an initiative of Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It was introduced to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country and establish India as a great sporting nation.
  • It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding by the union government.
  • It is a Pan India Sports Scholarship scheme that annually covers 1000 most deserving and talented athletes across the sports discipline.
  • The Talent Search and Development vertical of Khelo India scheme provides for grant of financial assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs per annum for a period of 8 consecutive years for selected sportspersonsHence statement 1 is correct

Source: http://www.newsonair.com/News?title=Sports-Ministry-all-set-to-establish-Khelo-India-State-Centres-of-Excellence&id=391526

3.Consider the following statements regardingInternational Atomic Energy Agency

  • It is headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
  • It works for the safe, secure and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology, contributing to international peace and security

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Europe wants nuclear watchdog IAEA to ‘rebuke’ Iran for refusing inspections

Iran has refused to allow International Atomic Energy Agency access to its two sites where the agency suspects nuclear activity to have occurred in the past.

US intelligence agencies and the IAEA believe Iran had a secret, coordinated nuclear weapons programme that it halted in 2003.

The IAEA has also reported that Iran remains in breach of many of the restrictions imposed by its nuclear deal. Iran began breaching the accord after the United States withdrew in May 2018 and reimposed economic sanctions on Tehran.

About International Atomic Energy Agency

  • The International Atomic Energy Agency is the world’s central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical co-operation in the nuclear field.
  • It works for the safe, secure and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology, contributing to international peace and security and the UnitedNations’ Sustainable Development Goals. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears generated by the diverse uses of nuclear technology.
  • Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
  • The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • India has been a member of IAEA since its inception in 1957.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/europe-wants-nuclear-watchdog-iaea-to-rebuke-iran-for-refusing-inspections/story-1g8LAg62qmL6k2bQ7mhUGK.html

4.Consider the following statements regardingKodumanal

  • It is a village located in the Erode district in Tamil Nadu
  • It had brought to light two cultural periods of Megalithic period and early historic period

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Excavation at Kodumanal reveals megalithic belief in afterlife

  • The Kodumanal excavation of 10 pots and bowls, instead of the usual three or four pots, placed outside three-chambered burial cists and inside the cairn-circle, threw light on burial rituals and the concept of afterlife in megalithic culture.
  • A team from the State Department of Archaeology, Chenna has recently identified 250 cairn-circles at the village in Erode district.
  • Earlier excavations revealed that the site served as a trade-cum-industrial center from 5th century BCE to 1st century BCE.
  • The rectangular chambered cists, each two metres long and six metres wide, are made of stone slabs, and the entire grave is surrounded by boulders that form a circle.
  • Previous excavations have revealed that multi-ethnic groups lived at the village, located about 500 metres away from the Noyyal river.
  • The grave could be possibly of a village head or the head of the community as the size of two boulders, each facing east and west, are bigger than the rest of the boulders.
  • Believing that the deceased person will get a new life after death, pots and bowls filled with grains were placed outside the chambers.

About Kodumanal:

  • The Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology in collaboration with the Tamil University, Thanjavur conducted excavations at Kodumanal situated in Perundurai taluk in Erode District. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The excavation had brought to light two cultural periods viz: Megalithic period and early historic period. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It was once a flourishing ancient trade city known as Kodumanam, as inscribed in Patittrupathu of Sangam Literature.
  • The place is an important archaeological site, under the control of State Archaeological Department of Tamil Nadu.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/excavation-at-kodumanal-reveals-megalithic-belief-in-afterlife/article31862510.ece#:~:text=250%20cairn%2Dcircles%20identified%20at,of%20afterlife%20in%20megalithic%20culture.

5.Consider the following statements regardingRapid antigen detection test

  • Unlike RT-PCR, the rapid antigen detection test seeks to detect the virus rather than the antibodies produced by the body.
  • It is a test on swabbed nasal samples that detects antigens that are found on or within the SARS-CoV-2 virus

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained: How rapid antigen test detects Covid-19, where it will be used

What is the rapid antigen detection test for Covid-19?

  • It is a test on swabbed nasal samples that detects antigens(foreign substances that induce an immune response in the body) that are found on or within the SARS-CoV-2 virus. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It is a point-of-care test, performed outside the conventional laboratory setting, and is used to quickly obtain a diagnostic result.

How is rapid antigen detection test different from RT-PCR test?

  • RT-PCR is currently the gold standard frontline test for the diagnosis of Covid-19.
  • Like RT-PCR, the rapid antigen detection test too seeks to detect the virus rather than the antibodies produced by the body. While the mechanism is different, the most significant difference between the two is time. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • As the ICMR has pointed out, the RT-PCR test takes a minimum of 2-5 hours including the time taken for sample transportation.
  • In a reliable rapid antigen detection test, the maximum duration for interpreting a positive or negative test is 30 minutes.

What are the limitations of an antigen test’s results?

  • These tests are very specific for the virus but are not as sensitive as molecular PCR tests. This means that positive results from antigen tests are highly accurate, but there is a higher chance of false negatives, so negative results do not rule out infection.
  • Negative results from an antigen test may need to be confirmed with a PCR test before making treatment decisions or to prevent the possible spread of the virus due to a false negative.
  • Once the sample is collected in the extraction buffer, it is stable only for one hour. Therefore, the antigen test needs to be conducted at the site of sample collection in the healthcare setting.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/how-rapid-antigen-test-detects-coronavirus-where-it-will-be-used-6460735/

6.Consider the following statements regarding National Employment Policy

  • It will aims at absorbing additional 5 million workforce every year.
  • This Policy will improving the skill sets of the existing workforce to make it employable as India gears up to attract companies seeking to shift manufacturing bases from China.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Labour ministry to fast-track National Employment Policy

  • The government has fast-tracked the proposed National Employment Policy (NEP), which aims at formalisation of the country’s 500 million workforce including migrants to ensure job and social security.
  • The policy will lay out a sectoral roadmap with incentives for employment generation, based on the recommendations of the Thawar Chand Gehlot-led group of ministers in the wake of the Covid-19-induced economic crisis

About National Employment Policy (NEP):

  • The policy will aim at absorbing additional 5 million workforce every yearHence statement 1 is correct
  • Also, the policy will focus on formalizing 500 million workforce in the country.
  • It will also ensure social security and job security for them.
  • The policy will frame a road map to provide incentives for employment generation.

Twin objectives :

  • To attract new enterprises and industries to generate employment opportunities
  • Improving the skill sets of the existing workforce to make it employable as India gears up to attract companies seeking to shift manufacturingbases from China. Hence statement 2 is correct

Background:

  • Indian economy had slowed down before COVID-19 but the ongoing pandemic has pushed it further into a recession.
  • As per the data from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), the employment rate has touched as high as 23.5% in the two months of lockdown in April and May 2020.  
  • Apart from this, CMIE has also estimated that 27 million youths in the age-group of 20-30 years have lost their jobs in April 2020 because of the lockdown.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/labour-ministry-to-fast-track-national-employment-policy/articleshow/76422702.cms

7.Consider the following statements regarding Axone

  • It is a fermented soya bean, known for its distinctive flavour and smell.
  • It is prepared and eaten across karanatka but is particularly popular among the Sumi  tribe

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained: What is Axone?

  • Axone — also spelled akhuni — is a fermented soya bean of Nagaland, known for its distinctive flavour and smell. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • While it is called ‘axone’ in parts of Nagaland, fermented soya bean is cooked with, eaten and known by different names in different parts of Northeast India, including Meghalaya and Mizoram, Sikkim, Manipur
  • Axone is prepared and eaten across Nagaland but is particularly popular among the Sumi (also Sema) tribe. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • It belongs to the broader phenomena of fermentation necessary for food preservation in certain ecological contexts.
  • It is the one food that connects the Eastern Himalayas as a culturally cross-cutting cuisine.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-axone-fermented-soya-bean-nagaland-6463008/

8.Consider the following statements regarding Qualified Institutional Placement

  • It allows an Indian-listed company to raise capital from domestic markets without the need to submit any pre-issue filings to market regulators
  • Qualified Institutional Placements are a way to issue shares to the public without going to SEBI

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Covid-19 impact: Sebi relaxes capital raising norms for listed companies

  • To tide over the liquidity crisis created by the Covid-19 pandemic, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) has eased capital raising norms for listed companies.
  • Sebi has also relaxed the norms for qualified institutional placements (QIP), a popular route to raise fresh capital from institutional investors. The regulator has eased the mandatory six-month cooling-off period between two QIPs to just two weeks.

About qualified institutional placement (QIP)

  • A qualified institutional placement (QIP) is, at its core, a way for listed companies to raise capital, without having to submit legal paperwork to market regulators. It is common in India and other southeast Asian countries. 
  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India(SEBI) created the rule to avoid the dependence of companies on foreign capital resources.
  • A qualified institutional placement was initially a designation of a securities issue given by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The QIP allows an Indian-listed company to raise capital from domestic markets without the need to submit any pre-issue filings to market regulators. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The SEBI limits companies to only raising money through issuing securities.
  • The primary reason for developing QIPs was to keep India from depending too much on foreign capital to fund its economic growth.
  • Qualified Institutional Placements are a way to issue shares to the public without going through standard regulatory compliance such as the submission of pre-issue filings to SEBI. Hence statement 2 is correct

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/markets/covid-19-impact-sebi-relaxes-capital-raising-norms-for-listed-companies-120061701284_1.html

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/q/qip.asp#:~:text=The%20QIP%20allows%20an%20Indian,raising%20money%20through%20issuing%20securities.

9.consider the following:

  • Fundamental Rights
  • Order and Security
  • Regulatory Enforcement
  • Civil Justice
  • Criminal Justice

Which of the above are indicators taken into consideration while computing the Rule of Law index ?

  • 1,2,3 and 4 only
  • 1, 3,4 and 5 only
  • 1,3 and 4 only
  • 1,2,3,4 and 5

Answer: (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

Explanation:

In NEWS: Decide on plea on Rule of Law Index in 6 months, Supreme Court tells government

  • The Supreme Court has asked the government to treat a writ petition for setting up expert panels to boost India’s prospects in the Rule of Law Index.
  • The cause of action for the petition accrued when the World Justice Project ranked India in the 69th position in its Rule of Law Index.
  • India has never been ranked even among top 50 in the Index, but successive governments did nothing to improve the international ranking of India, said the petition.
  • Poor rule of law has a devastating effect on the right to life, liberty, economic justice, fraternity, individual dignity and national integration.

About Rule of Law Index

  • It is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.
  • It is released by the World Justice project

The Index measures countries’ rule of law performance across eight factors: Hence option (d) is correct

  • Constraints on Government Powers,
  • Absence of Corruption,
  • Open Government,
  • Fundamental Rights,
  • Order and Security,
  • Regulatory Enforcement,
  • Civil Justice, and
  • Criminal Justice.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/decide-on-plea-on-rule-of-law-index-in-6-months-supreme-court-tells-government/article31863917.ece

10.Consider the following statements:

  • The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Various central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, Fruit Products Order, 1955, Meat Food Products Order, 1973, Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947, Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation)Order 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967, Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992 etc. were repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Governmentof India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) have already been appointed by Government of India. Before the formation of FSSAI, from 1954 onwards Prevention of Food Adulteration was part of Directorate General of Health Services. After having detached from the direct administrative control of the Health Ministry, this authority is holding independent authority and has attained special status