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Daily Prelims Test – 19_July 2021

Consider the following statements regarding Indian parliament:

1. The President summons each House of the Parliament from time to time.

2. The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed three months.

The Constitution has fixed one-third strength as the quorum for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1 and 2 only
  4. d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Govt. ready to discuss all issues in a constructive manner: Modi

  • A day before the monsoon session of Parliament gets under way, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday told an all-party meeting that his government is ready to discuss and debate all issues in a “constructive” manner.
  • Sessions of Parliament:
  • The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.
  • The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the Government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs which is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session.
  • India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e. not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
  • Summoning of Parliament:
  • Summoning is the process of calling all members of the Parliament to meet. The President summons each House of the Parliament from time to time. The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed 6 months, which means the Parliament meets at least two times in one year. Hence statement (1) is correct and (2) is correct.
  • Quorum:
  • Quorum refers to the minimum number of the members required to be present for conducting a meeting of the house. The Constitution has fixed one-tenth strength as quorum for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Thus, to conduct a sitting of Lok Sabha, there should be at least 55 members present while to conduct a sitting of Rajya Sabha, there should be at least 25 members present. Hence statement (3) is correct.
  • Source: TH Pg:No: 1

The Cairo Consensus was recently seen in the news. Which of the following statements are related to the Cairo Consensus?

a) It aims to reduce global warming in African Countries

b) It aims to support reporters who works in conflict regions

c) It aims to take welfare-based approach for population control

d) It aims to provide free vaccines for low and marginal-income populations

Answer: (d) It aims to provide free vaccines for low- and marginal-income populations

Explanation:

In NEWS: An unproductive idea: On U.P.’s new population policy

  • Given that the increasing population acts as a hurdle in national development, there have been calls to control the population growth rate.
  • India has been moving steadily towards attaining the replacement level of Total Fertility Rate of 2.1. However, some states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar continue to have high TFR.
  • The various aims set out in the new policy like increasing the rate of modern contraceptive prevalence, male contraception, decreasing maternal mortality and infant mortality rates are welcome.
  • These objectives are in line with the Cairo Consensus adopted in the Cairo International Conference on Population and Development in 1994.
  • The 1994 International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) articulated a bold new vision about the relationships between population, development and individual well-being.
  • The conference was held in Cairo.  During the conference, 179 countries adopted a forward-looking, 20-year Programme of Action (extended in 2010) that continues to serve as a comprehensive guide to people-centred development progress. It was also called as Cairo Consensus.  
  • The Cairo Consensus called for the promotion of reproductive rights, empowering women, universal education, maternal and infant health to untangle the knotty issue of poverty and high fertility. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • The consensus also demands an increase in the rate of modern contraceptive prevalence, male contraception.

Sourcehttps://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/an-unproductive-idea-the-hindu-editorial-on-ups-new-population-policy/article35310944.ece

Fit for 55 proposal was sometimes seen in the news related to

a) Achieving Sustainable Development Goals related to climate change

b) Achieving target to eliminate TB patient by 2025

c) Awareness campaign promoting various financial products in tier-II cities

d) Cutting Greenhouse Gas emissions and reduce dependence on fossil fuels

Answer: (d) Cutting Greenhouse Gas emissions & reducing dependence on fossil fuels

Explanation:

NEWS: EU’s new climate proposal is vast. But is it transformational?

  • The European Union (EU) in December 2020 submitted a revised Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement: Of reducing greenhouse gas emissions by 55 percent below 1990 levels by 2030. It also set a long-term goal of achieving carbon neutrality by 2050.
  • A set of strong sectoral emission reduction targets or pathways to achieve the new NDC, however, was lacking. The Fit for 55package of climate and energy proposals released by the European Commission on July 14, 2021 has attempted to address that.
  • It includes a new emissions trading system for transport and buildings, a ban on the sale of polluting cars from 2035 and a carbon border price on imported goods.
  • The European Union has unveiled some of the world’s most ambitious proposals, titled “Fit for 55”, to reduce carbon emissions and wean its 27 members off fossil fuels. The plan aims to cut their output of greenhouse gases by 55% by 2030, compared with 1990 levelsHence option (d) is correct.
  • The commission’s proposals require endorsement by the European Parliament and leaders of European national governments before they become law, a process that is expected to take around two years.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/eu-s-new-climate-proposal-is-vast-but-is-it-transformational–77970

Consider the following statements regarding Centralized Public Grievances Redress and Monitoring System:

It is a web-based application developed by the National Informatics Centre.

It provides online access to all citizens including those in Armed Forces personnel to report their grievances.

Right to Information (RTI) matters are taken up for redressal by CPGRAMS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 3 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1 and 2 only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Raksha Mantri launches Artificial Intelligence powered grievance management application

  • Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh launched an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered grievance management application developed by the Ministry of Defence with the help of IIT-Kanpur. Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions Dr Jitendra Singh graced the occasion. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • This is the first AI based system developed to improve grievance redressal in the Government. The AI tool developed as part of the initiative has capability to understand the content of the complaint based on the contents therein. As a result, it can identify repeat complaints or spam automatically. Based on the meaning of the complaint, it can categorise complaints of different categories even when key words normally used for such search are not present in the complaint. 
  • About Centralized Public Grievances Redress and Monitoring System
  • Centralized Public Grievances Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is a web-based application developed by the National Informatics Centre(NIC) in association with the Directorate of Public Grievances(DPG) and the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances(DARPG). Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • The application aims to enable submission of grievances by the aggrieved citizens from anywhere and anytime (24×7) basis to Ministries who scrutinize and take action for speedy and favorable redress of these grievances.
  • Issues that are not taken up for redressal by CPGRAMS:
  • Sub Judice cases or any matter concerning judgment given by any court.
  • Personal and family disputes.
  • RTI matters. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.
  • Anything that impacts upon territorial integrity of the country of friendly relations with other countries.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1735885

Consider the following statements regarding dismissal of civil servants:

If a government employee is convicted in a criminal case, she/he can be dismissed without a Departmental Enquiry.

The state government employee either of an all India service or a state government cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him/her.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Dismissal of J&K govt employees: What the Constitution says

  • Lt Governor Manoj Sinha has dismissed 11 Jammu and Kashmir government employees for alleged terror links under provisions of Article 311(2)(c) of the Constitution. The employees include two sons of Hizbul Mujahideen chief Syed Salahuddin.
  • Constitutional provision
  • Article 311 of the Constitution deals with ‘Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State’.
  • Under Article 311(2), no civil servant can be “dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges’’.
  • Exceptions to Article 311(2): 
  • 2(a): It says that if a government employee is convicted in a criminal case, he can be dismissed without a Departmental Enquiry (DE). Hence statement (1) is correct
  • 2(b) – It says that the government employee can be dismissed if the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, it is not reasonably practicable to hold inquiry Hence statement (2) is incorrect
  • 2(c): It says that the government employee can be dismissed when the President or the Governor is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the state.  It is not required to hold such an inquiry. 

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/dismissal-of-jk-govt-employees-what-the-constitution-says-7405142/

Consider the following statements:

A bad bank is a bank set up to buy the bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution.

K V Kamath Committee is related to setting up of bad banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Banks to exit ARCs as they set up ‘bad bank’

Lenders have started looking for buyers for their stakes in asset reconstruction companies (ARCs) to free up capital for the launch of the National Asset Reconstruction Co. Ltd (NARCL), the ‘bad bank’ they will jointly own.

In February, state-run Punjab National Bank (PNB) put its entire 10.01% stake in Arcil, one of India’s oldest ARCs with assets worth ₹12,000 crore under management, for sale.

About bad bank

  • A bad bank is a bank set up to buy the bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • The entity holding significant nonperforming assets will sell these holdings to the bad bank at market price.
  • By transferring such assets to the bad bank, the original institution may clear its balance sheet—although it will still be forced to take write-downs.
  • This helps banks or FIs clear-off their balance sheets by transferring the bad loans and focus on its core business lending activities.
  • Large debtors have many creditors. Hence bad banks could solve the coordination problem, since debts would be centralised in one agency.
  • It can effect speedier settlements with borrowers by cutting out individual banks.
  • It can drive a better bargain with borrowers and take more stringent enforcement action against them.
  • It can raise money from institutional investors rather than looking only to the Government.
  • According to the K V Kamath Committee, enterprises in industries such as retail, wholesale, roadways, and textiles are under difficulty. NBFCs, power, steel, real estate, and construction were all under pressure prior to Covid. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • Source: TH

With reference to the Kapu community, consider the following statements:

It is primarily a trader community based in the Andhra-Telangana region.

It migrated from the Indus River plains and settled on Godavari banks.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: A.P. govt announces 10% reservation for EWS

  • The Andhra Pradesh government announced a 10% reservation for the Kapu community and other Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) for appointments in the initial posts and services in State government in accordance with the Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019. 
  • The 10% reservation in employment will benefit Kapus who are neither benefited under BC quota nor under EWS quota and other Open Competition (OC) sections who are deprived of the benefits of reservation thus far due to non-implementation of the EWS quota.
  • About Kapu community
  • Kapu refers to a social grouping of agriculturists found primarily in the southern Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • Kapus are primarily an agrarian community, forming a heterogeneous peasant caste.
  • They are classified as a Forward Castein Andhra Pradesh, where they are the dominant community in the districts of East Godavari and West GodavariHence statement (2) is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ap-govt-announces-10-reservation-for-ews/article35337212.ece

Consider the following statements regarding Monk fruit:

It was introduced for field trials in Himachal Pradesh by the Council of Scientific Research.

It is known for its properties as a non-caloric natural sweetener.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India’s first monk fruit cultivation exercise begins in HP’s Kullu

  • The ‘monk fruit’ from China, which is known for its properties as non-caloric natural sweetener, was Monday introduced for field trials in Himachal Pradesh by the Palampur-based Council of Scientific Research and Industrial Technology-Institute of Himalayan Bioresource Technology (CSIR-IHBT) in Kullu. Hence statements (1) and (2) are correct.
  • The field trials began three years after the CSIR-IHBT imported its seeds from China and grew it in the house.
  • Fifty seedlings were planted in the fields of progressive farmer Manav Khullar from Raison village for field trials and CSIR-IHBT signed a ‘Material Transfer Agreement’ with Manav.
  • The economic benefits of the new crop are estimated to be between Rs 3 lakh to Rs 3.5 lakh per hectare.
  • This, as per CSIR-IHBT, is the first ever monk fruit cultivation exercise in India.
  • The plant prefers mountainous area with an annual mean temperature of about 16–20 °C and humid conditions
  • Seed germination rate of monk fruit is slow and low, thus the seed germination technique has been developed to increase the germination rate and reduce the germination time.
  • The institute has developed planting methods and standardised planting time. It has also developed a method for generation of characterised planting material, and standardised the harvesting time for getting higher Mogroside-V content in fruit. Post-harvest management practices have also been developed.

Sourcehttps://indianexpress.com/article/india/indias-first-monk-fruit-cultivation-exercise-begins-in-hps-kullu-7405549/

Consider the following statements regarding MH-60R helicopters:

It is an all-weather helicopter designed to support multiple missions with state of the art avionics/ sensors.

It is manufactured by a USA based company.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Indian Navy accepts first batch of two MH-60r Multi Role Helicopters (MRH)

Indian Navy accepted the first two of its MH-60R Multi Role Helicopters (MRH) from the US Navy in a ceremony held at Naval Air Station North Island, San Diego. The ceremony marked the formal transfer of these helicopters from US Navy to Indian Navy

  • MH-60R helicopters manufactured by Lockheed Martin Corporation, USA is an all-weather helicopter designed to support multiple missions with state of the art avionics/ sensorsHence statements (1) and (2) are correct.
  • 24 of these helicopters are being procured under Foreign Military Sales from the US Government. The helicopters would also be modified with several India Unique Equipment and weapons.
  • The induction of these MRH would further enhance Indian Navy’s three dimensional capabilities.
  • In order to exploit these potent helicopters, the first batch of Indian crew is presently undergoing training in the USA.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1736365

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to

a) bonded labour

b) land grant made to military officers

c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land

d) wasteland converted to cultivated land

Answer: (c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land

Explanation:

The ‘ara-ghatta’ originates from the blend of the words “ara” which means talk and “ghatta” which means pot. There is confirmation to contend that this arrangement of lifting water from open wells was presumably designed in the India of the past. Hence option (c) is correct.