KingMakers IAS Academy logo

Daily Prelims Test – 19_January_2022

1. Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbetka rock shelters:

1) They are an archeological site in Uttar Pradesh that spans from the prehistoric Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods.

2) Dr V. S. Wakankar discovered these caves in 1958.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Human migration decoded in Bhimbetka cave rhino riddle

●    The two-horned Sumatran rhino, revered as fire-eaters by the Karen community in Myanmar, never ventured west of the Brahmaputra floodplains straddling Assam and Bangladesh.

●    But the animal’s depiction in the Bhimbetka rock shelters of central India’s Madhya Pradesh has provided researchers with a clue to early human migration in the subcontinent.

Bhimbetka Rock Shelters:

●    The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archeological site in MP that spans the prehistoric Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.

●    It exhibits the earliest traces of human life in India and evidence of Stone Age starting at the site in Acheulian times.

●    These rock shelters are declared a Unesco World Heritage Site in 2003

●    Dr V. S. Wakankar, a most renowned archeologist, discovered these caves in 1958. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    It is popular for its prehistoric cave paintings done in red and white.

●    The oldest of all the paintings dates back to around 12,000 years back, while the most latest is around 1000 yrs old

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/human-migration-decoded-in-bhimbetka-cave-rhino-riddle/article38252979.ece

2. The Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas of India is developed by which of the following organisations?

a)  World Meteorological Organisation

b) NITI Aayog

c)  Indian Space Research Organisation

d) Ministry of Earth Sciences

Answer: (d) Ministry of Earth Sciences

Explanation:

In NEWS: Centre lists districts vulnerable to climate crisis in India’s first weather hazard atlas

●    The atlas, the first of its kind, will aid in disaster preparedness as extreme weather events rise in the wake of the climate crisis

●    The Sunderbans in West Bengal, neighbouring districts of Odisha, and Ramanathapuram, Pudukkottai and Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu are the most vulnerable to high storm surges of as much as 8.5 to 13.7 metres that are induced by cyclones

●    The atlas, the first of its kind, will aid in disaster preparedness as extreme weather events rise in the wake of the climate crisis

●    The maximum heights of storm surges in the atlas provides data for all coastal districts in India.

●    The maximum probable rainfall associated with severe cyclones in the 50-60 cm range is likely over Prakasam, East Godavari, Krishna, West Godavari on the east coast, and Ratnagiri, Sindhudurg, south Goa and Uttara Kannada on the west coast.

●    There is no change in the number of cyclones affecting the west coast, but the severity of cyclones developing over the Arabian Sea has increased

●    The atlas is expected to mitigate the effects of 13 most hazardous meteorological events – cold wave, heat wave, thunderstorms, flood, drought, fog, wind hazard, dust storm, snowfall, hail storm, lightning, extreme rainfall and cyclone – that can cause extensive damage.

●    There are 640 climate vulnerability maps in the atlas.

●    Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas of India was launched by the Union Minister of Earth Sciences Dr Jitendra Singh. The IMD was established in 1875. It operates under the Minister of Earth Science. It is responsible for meteorological observations, seismology and weather events. It is one of the six regional meteorological centres of the World Meteorological Organization. Hence option (d) is correct.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/centre-lists-districts-vulnerable-to-climate-crisis-in-india-s-first-weather-hazard-atlas-101642444901702.html

3. Recently, the World Employment and Social Outlook is released by

a)  International Labour Organisation

b) World Health Organization

c)  International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

d) World Bank

Answer: (a) International Labour Organisation

Explanation:

In NEWS: Global unemployment projected to stand at 207 million in 2022: ILO

●    Global unemployment is projected to stand at 207 million in 2022. This is 21 million more than in 2019 before the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic began, according to the ILO World Employment and Social Outlook – Trends 2022. Hence, option (a) is correct.

●    Global working hours in 2022 will be almost two per cent below their pre-pandemic level — that is equivalent to the loss of 52 million full-time jobs. This deficit is twice as large as the ILO’s forecast in May last year, according to the Outlook released by the ILO January 17, 2022.

●    The downgrade in the 2022 forecast reflects the impact of ever new variants of COVID-19 on the world of work, according to the Outlook.

●    It is estimated that in 2022 around 40 million people will no longer be participating in the global labour force.

●    The Outlook remains fragile because the future path of the pandemic remains uncertain. Also, wider economic risks such as accelerating inflation may come into play. Labour market prospects are uneven across the globe.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/global-unemployment-projected-to-stand-at-207-million-in-2022-ilo-81158

4. Consider the following statements regarding National Mission on the use of Biomass in thermal power plants:

1) It aims to address the issue of air pollution by farm-stubble burning.

2) It aims to increase the level of co-firing from present 5% to higher levels to have a larger share of carbon neutral power generation from the thermal power plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: 59,000 metric tonnes of biomass co-fired in coal fired Thermal power plants

●    The Ministry of Power’s policy on “Biomass Utilization for Power Generation through Co-firing in Coal based Power Plants” issued in October 2021 mandates all thermal power plants in the country to use 5 to 10% biomass along with coal for power production.

●    As on date, approximately 59,000 metric tonnes (MT) of biomass has been cofired in thermal power plants in the country, while tenders for 12 million metric tonnes (MMT) are at different stages of process for short term & long term duration.

●    Out of this, the biomass co-fired in the NCR region stands at 21000 MT and tenders floated in the region are about 5.50 MMT.

●    Contracts have already been awarded for more than 11 lakh MT of biomass pellets.

National Mission on the use of Biomass in thermal power plants:

●    In order to address the issue of air pollution due to farm stubble burning and to reduce carbon footprints of thermal power generation. . Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    Ministry of Power has decided to set up a National Mission on use of Biomass in coal based thermal power plants. 

●    This would further support the energy transition in the country and our targets to move towards cleaner energy sources.

The “National Mission on use of biomass in thermal power plants” will have the following objectives:

●    To increase the level of co-firing from present 5% to higher levels to have a larger share of carbon neutral power generation from the thermal power plants. . Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    To take up R&D activity in boiler design to handle the higher amount of silica, alkalis in the biomass pellets.

●    To facilitate overcoming the constraints in supply chain of biomass pellets and agro- residue and its transport upto to the power plants.

●    To consider regulatory issues in biomass co-firing.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1790832

5. Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):

1) It will be governed by the Reserve Bank of India.

2) It aims to build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for common man.

3) It will provide social security payments like MNREGA wages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: India Post Payments Bank’s customer base crosses 5 Crore Mark

●    The biggest initiative of financial inclusion in the country by the Prime Minister at its launch, the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a ‘Digital-First Bank’ built on the rails of wide physical distribution network of India Post under the Ministry of Communication.

India Post Payments Bank:

●    India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communication with 100% equity owned by the Government of India.

●    IPPB was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on September 1, 2018.

●    It will be governed by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The bank has been set up with the vision to build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the common man in India. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    The fundamental mandate of IPPB is to remove barriers for the unbanked and under-banked and reach the last mile leveraging the postal network.

●    IPPB’s reach and its operating model is built on the key pillars of India Stack – enabling Paperless, Cashless and Presence-less banking in a simple and secure manner at the customers’ doorstep

●    IPPB is committed to provide a fillip to a less cash economy and contribute to the vision of Digital India.

●    India will prosper when every citizen will have equal opportunity to become financially secure and empowered

●    The maximum limit on deposits for current and savings accounts is Rs 1 lakh.

●    The bank offers a 4 per cent interest rate on savings accounts.

●    They can issue debit cards and ATM cards, but they cannot issue credit cards and cannot loan money.

●    It will provide social security payments like MNREGA wages, direct benefit transfer and give access to third-party services insurance, mutual funds. Hence statement (3) is correct.

●    IPPB account holders will be issued a QR Code based biometric card with a unique QR code.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1790686

6. Consider the following statements regarding Dark Matter:

1) It does not appear to interact with the electromagnetic field.

2) It is composed of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit light.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Motion of stars holds clue of dark matter shape in barred galaxies

●    Out of plane bending of the bar in barred galaxies (central bar-shaped structure composed of stars) is a rare violent bar thickening mechanism known as buckling.

●    Scientists investigating how the shape of dark matter halo affects the motion of stars in stellar bars (found at the centre of some galaxies) have found that out-of-plane bending events of the bar explain the shape of dark matter halos in barred galaxies.

●    Many recent numerical and observational studies suggest that dark matter halos are spherical, prolate (a sphere squashed from the sides), or oblate (a sphere squashed from the top and bottom) in shape.

Dark matter:

●    It is a hypothetical form of matter thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe.

●    It’s about a quarter of its total mass-energy density or about 2.241×10−27 kg/m3.

●    It forms the skeleton on which galaxies form, evolve, and merge.

●    It does not appear to interact with the electromagnetic field, which means it does not absorb, reflect, or emit electromagnetic radiation (like light) and is, therefore, difficult to detect. Hence statement (1) is correct and statement (2) is correct.

●    Its gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart.

●    However, attempts to detect such dark matter particles using underground experiments, or accelerator experiments including the world’s largest accelerator, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), have failed so far.

Source: https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/science-environment/1886230-motion-of-stars-holds-clue-of-dark-matter-shape-in-barred-galaxies

7. Consider the following statements regarding Silent Valley National Park:

1) It is located in the Nilgiri hills.

2) It is a national park in Tamilnadu.

3) It is surrounded by New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary and Nedumkayam Rainforest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c)  1 and 2 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Resident tiger population in Nilgiris division believed to be on the rise

●    A resident population of tigers could be thriving in the high-altitude Shola forests in the Nilgiris forest division, rather than simply be using the landscape as a corridor to move between different traditional tiger habitats as was previously believed

●    It was believed by researchers that tigers only used the Nilgiris forest division as a corridor to move between Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley in Kerala

Silent Valley National Park:

●    Silent Valley National Park, is a national park in Kerala, India. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

●    It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2, which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2 . Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The national park is one of the last undisturbed tracts of South Western Ghats mountain rain forests and tropical moist evergreen forest in India. 

●    Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, and Nedumkayam Rainforest in Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram district, Attappadi Reserved Forest in Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, and Mukurthi National Park of Nilgiris district, are located around Silent Valley National Park. Hence statement (3) is correct

●    Mukurthi peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda peak are also located in its vicinity.

●    Bhavani River, a tributary of Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of Bharathapuzha river, originate in the vicinity of Silent Valley. The Kadalundi River has its origin in Silent Valley.

●    The national park is one of the last undisturbed tracts of South Western Ghats Mountain rain forests and tropical moist evergreen forest in India.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/resident-tiger-population-in-nilgiris-division-believed-to-be-on-the-rise/article38283698.ece

8. Consider the following statements regarding Chintamani Padya Natakam:

1) It is a playwright written by Kallakuri Narayana Rao.

2) It is associated with the Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Government bans 100-year-old Chintamani Natakam over objectionable dialogues, characters

●    Bringing the curtains down on famous play Chintamani, which had enthralled the audience for almost 100 years, the Andhra Pradesh government on Monday issued orders banning the exhibition of ‘Chintamani Padya Natakam’ in the State.

●    The decision was taken in view of objections raised by the Arya Vysya community over some “objectionable dialogues and characters” in the play.

●    The play was written by famous reformer, playwright and cinematographer Kallakuri Narayana Rao nearly 100 years ago. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The play depicts how Chintamani, born in a family involved in flesh trade, with her devotion to Lord Krishna attains liberation. Apart from Chintamani, the play has characters like Subbi Shetty, Bilvamangalam, Bhavani Sankaram and others. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    Subbi Shetty, who hails from Arya Vysya community as per the play, loses all his property to Chintamani.

●    The Arya Vysya community had been up in arms against the play for a long time.

●    Recently, the centenary celebrations of the play were held in Eluru of West Godavari and the controversy once again came to the fore

Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2022/jan/18/government-bans-100-year-old-chintamani-natakam-over-objectionable-dialogues-characters-2408080.html

9. ABC Framework is related to which of the following options?

a)  Higher Education

b) Artificial intelligence

c)  Marine Ecosystem

d) Paper Industry

Answer: (a) Higher Education

Explanation:

In NEWS: Centre brings all higher education institutions on ABC platform

●    The ABC framework is part of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, and will allow higher education institutions to maintain a digital repository of credits earned by students; under ABC, students can choose to study one course in a year in one institution and switch to another one the next year. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

●    The framework also allows students to pursue courses online and earn credits. While mandatory under NEP 2020, institutions have the flexibility of adopting it at a time of their choice.

●    The University Grants Commission (UGC) on July 28, 2021, notified ABC and issued the UGC (Establishment and Operation of Academic Bank of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations, 2021.

●    Made it compulsory for higher education institutions that received ‘A’ grade from the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) or fall in the top 100 National Institutions Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings, to register for ABC.

●    However, under the UGC (Establishment and Operation of Academic Bank of Credits in Higher Education) (First Amendment) Regulations, 2021, now any university or college, irrespective of ranking, can participate and register to come under the ABC framework.

●    This will include both central and state universities, deemed-to-be universities and autonomous institutions.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/centre-brings-all-higher-education-institutions-on-abc-platform-101642185789999.html

10. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a)  Catfish

b) Octopus

c)  Oyster

d) Pelican

Answer: (c) Oyster

Explanation:

●    A Filter Feeder is an animal (such as a clam or baleen whale) that obtains its food by filtering organic matter or minute organisms from a current of water that passes through some part of its system.

●    Oysters are natural filter feeders. This means they feed by pumping water through their gills, trapping particles of food as well as nutrients, suspended sediments and chemical contaminants. Hence option (c) is correct.