Consider the following statements regarding New START Treaty
1.It is a treaty between the United States of America and the North Korea on measures for the further reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms.
2.It is a successor to the START framework of 1991
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Putin wants New START treaty extended
- President Vladimir Putin on Friday proposed a one-year extension without conditions of the last major nuclear arms reduction accord between Russia and the US
- The New START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) accord, signed in 2010 and due to expire in February, restricts the numbers of strategic nuclear warheads that Russia and the United States can deploy as well as the missiles and bombers that carry them.
- A failure to extend the pact would remove all of the constraints, threatening to fuel a post-Cold War arms race and tensions between the world’s two largest nuclear weapons powers.
- Russia proposed to extend the accord for at least a year without imposing any conditions.
About New START Treaty
- The new Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) is a treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation on measures for the further reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- It is a successor to the START framework of 1991 (at the end of the Cold War) that limited both sides to 1,600 strategic delivery vehicles and 6,000 warheads. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The treaty calls for halving the number of strategic nuclear missile launchers.
- It does not limit the number of operationally inactive nuclear warheads stockpiled by Russia and the United States.
Consider the following statements regarding Chapter Proceedings
1.These are preventive actions taken by the police if they fear that a particular person is likely to create trouble and disrupt the peace in society.
2.It is a legal term and a notice is issued to a person under section 111 of the CrPC
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What are ‘chapter proceedings’, initiated by Mumbai police against Arnab Goswami?
The Mumbai police last week began “chapter proceedings” against Republic Editor-in-Chief Arnab Goswami
- Chapter proceedings are preventive actions taken by the police if they fear that a particular person is likely to create trouble and disrupt the peace in society. Hence statement 1 is correct
- These proceedings are unlike punitive action taken in case of an FIR with an intention to punish.
- Here, the police can issue notices under sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure to ensure that the person is aware that creating nuisance could result in action against him, which includes paying a fine, in the absence of which, he could be put behind bars.
- Chapter proceeding is not a legal term. All the sections related to preventing of crime fall under a single chapter, it was colloquially called “chapter proceedings” and has since been used to refer to actions of this nature.
- A notice is issued to a person under section 111 of the CrPC whereby he is asked to present himself before the Executive Magistrate, an ACP-rank officer in a commissionerate of a deputy collector in rural areas. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- There is no need for even an FIR against a person for issuing a notice under section 107 of the CrPC.
- Under section 110, a notice is served to a habitual offender who has a record of FIRs registered against him.
- On receiving the notice under section 111, a person can appeal the notice before the courts.
- In the past, courts have come down strongly against chapter proceedings in some cases.
- In 2017, while striking down a notice issued to the owner of a bar, the Bombay High Court mentioned that ‘chapter proceedings cannot be initiated on the basis of an incident of trivial nature’.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/chapter-proceedings-mumbai-police-arnab-goswami-6742957/
Consider the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organization
1.It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation established in 2001.
2.India is a founding member of this organization
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India Hosts Virtual Summit of Ministers of Justice of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
- The Seventh Meeting of Ministers of Justice of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Member States was hosted by Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad, Hon’ble Minister of Law & Justice, Communication and Electronics & Information Technology on 16th October, 2020
- The summit deliberated on areas of cooperation; emphasized the high relevance of mutual exchange of legal information on counteraction to the spread of the coronavirus pandemic and acknowledged the need for cooperation in ADR mechanism area, among others.
About Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation established in 2001. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was formed in Shanghai (China) by Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Charter was signed during the St. Petersburg SCO Heads of State meeting in 2002 and came into force in 2003.
- In 2017 Astana, the status of a full member of the Organization was granted to India and Pakistan.
- The organisation has two permanent bodies i.e. the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent.
- The SCO comprises eight member states, namely India, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
- The SCO counts four observer states, namely Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia.
Consider the following
1.Withdrawal of monsoons in Northwest India
2.Dip in temperatures
3.Farm fires
4.Dust storms
5.Dip in wind speed
Which of the above options are correct related to air pollution rise in October each year?
- 3 and 4 only
- 1,2 and 5 only
- 2,3,4 and 5 only
- 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Answer: (d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: Why does air pollution rise in October each year?
- Air pollution in Delhi and the whole of the Indo Gangetic Plains is a complex phenomenon that is dependent on a variety of factors. The first and foremost is the input of pollutants, followed by weather and local conditions.
- On October 15, when the AQI touched very poor for the very first time this season, Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar said the contribution of stubble burning was only 4 per cent that day
Why does air pollution rise in October each year?
- October usually marks the withdrawal of monsoons in Northwest India. During monsoons, the prevalent direction of wind is easterly. These winds, which travel from over the Bay of Bengal, carry moisture and bring rains to this part of the country. Once monsoon withdraws, the predominant direction of winds changes to north westerly.
- Along with the change in wind direction, the dip in temperatures is also behind the increased pollution levels. As temperature dips, the inversion height — which is the layer beyond which pollutants cannot disperse into the upper layer of the atmosphere – is lowered. The concentration of pollutants in the air increases when this happens.
- High-speed winds are very effective at dispersing pollutants, but winters bring a dip in wind speed over all as compared to in summers
- When factors such as farm fires and dust storms are added to the already high base pollution levels in the city, air quality dips further. Hence option (d) is correct
What are the other big sources of pollution in Delhi?
- Dust and vehicular pollution are the two biggest causes of dipping air quality in Delhi in winters.
Consider the following statements regarding Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope
1.It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics
2.It is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45 metre diameter.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: New research sheds light on declining star formation in Milky Way
- In a vital discovery which may help understand the mystery behind declining star formation activity in the Milky Way, a team of astronomers from the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA-TIFR) and Raman Research Institute (RRI) in Bengaluru have used the upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) to measure the atomic hydrogen content of galaxies seen as they were eight billion years ago when the universe was young.
About Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope
- GMRT is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45 metre diameter.It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research. Hence statement 1 is correct and Hence statement 2 is correct
- GMRT is an indigenous project. Its design is based on the `SMART’ concept- for Stretch Mesh Attached to Rope Trusses.
- It functions at the metre wavelength part of the radio spectrumbecause man-made radio interference is considerably lower in this part of the spectrum in India and there are many outstanding astrophysics problems which are best studied at metre wavelengths.
- The location for GMRT, Pune meets several important criteria such as low man-made radio noise, availability of good communication, vicinity of industrial, educational and other infrastructure and,a geographical latitude sufficiently north of the geomagnetic equator in order to have a reasonably quiet ionosphere and yet be able to observe a good part of the southern sky as well.
Buldhana Pattern is associated with
1.Artificial Intelligence
2.TB Treatment
3.Gangetic Dolphin conservation
4.Water conservation
Answer: (d) Water conservation
Explanation:
In NEWS: Buldhana Pattern of water conservation gets national recognition
- Union Minister Nitin Gadkari has said that Maharashtra’s ‘Buldhana Pattern’ of water conservation’ has won national recognition and the NITI Aayog is in the process of formulating a National Policy on water conversation based on it. Hence option (d) is correct
- Gadkari said synchronization of national highway construction and water conservation was achieved for the first time in Buldhana district, by using soil from the water bodies, nallas, and rivers. This consequently leads to the increase in capacity of water storage across the water-bodies in Buldana district and it came to be known as ‘Buldhana Pattern’.
- With this activity in Maharashtra, 225 lakh cubic metre of soil was used in National Highway construction and the resultant widening/deepening resulted in an increase of 22,500 Thousand Cubic Metre (TMC) of water storage capacity with no cost to state government
- Through Agro-Vision – an agriculture convention held in Nagpur every year, Gadkari has appealed to adopt the cost-efficient ‘Buldhana pattern’ of road-construction nation-wide, especially in the regions which are facing a problem of water scarcity
Consider the following statements regarding Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile
1.It was developed by DRDO in partnership with VEM Technologies Ltd.
2.It is fitted with a high-explosive anti-tank
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: What are Anti-Tank Guided Missiles and why are they important?
- The indigenously developed laser-guided version of the Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) was successfully test fired by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on two separate occasions recently and will undergo more validation tests in coming days before it is ready for the user trials.
- The indigenously developed low weight, fire and forget Man Portable Anti Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) was successfully in September last year. In February 2018, ATGM Nag was successfully tested in desert conditions.
About Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile
- It is a third generation anti-tank guided missile. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It was developed by DRDO in partnership with VEM Technologies Ltd. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It is fitted with a high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT)
- It claims a top attack capability and an engagement range of about 2.5 kilometers
- It is expected to supplement the SPIKE missile system, which is under process for procurement from Israel
Consider the following statements regarding Solidarity Trial
1.It is a large-scale global trial studying the effectiveness of various repurposed therapies in Covid-19 treatment and it was initiated by World Bank
2.It covers four repurposed drugs or drug combinations of remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Solidarity Trial dampener: What does this mean for the drugs that hopes were pinned on?
- The World Health Organization (WHO) on Thursday made available interim results from the Solidarity Therapeutics Trial — a large-scale global trial studying the effectiveness of various repurposed therapies in Covid-19 treatment.
- What is the Solidarity Trial?
- The world’s “largest” multinational human trials on Covid-19 therapeutics, it was initiated by WHO and its partners in March to help find an effective treatment for Covid-19. Hence statement 1 is correct
- It covers four repurposed drugs or drug combinations — remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir and interferon (in combination with rotinavir and lopinavir). Hence statement 2 is correct
- The study spans over 400 hospitals in more than 30 countries and looks into the effects of these treatments on various indicators, including their ability to prevent deaths and shorten hospital stays. The trial involved more than 11,300 participants.
- The main aim was to help determine whether any of these repurposed therapies could at least moderately affect in-hospital mortality, and whether any effects differed between moderate and severe disease, said Dr Sheela Godbole, national coordinator of the Solidarity Trial in India.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’ ? It is a measure, in monetary value of the
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
(d)contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
Answer: (a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
Explanation:
- The social cost of carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The SCC puts the effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers and other decisionmakers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions. The country-level SCC for the India alone is estimated to be about $86 per tonne of CO2. At current emission levels, the Indian economy loses $210 billion annually. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
- 10.”The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Answer: (a) Cotton
Explanation:
- Cotton is grown on a variety of soils across the world. Deep, fertile soil with adequate humus and high water holding capacity and good internal drainage is best suited for growing cotton. Cotton can be grown in places wherever, at least 180 -200 frost free days are available. Optimum temperature for germination 20 -300C. Hence option (a) is correct
- Germination will be delayed if the temperature is 180 C
- The climatic conditions in the cotton growing regions of India show considerable variations. High temperature of about 45 degree celcius during sowing and seeding emergence and low temperature accompanied by occasional frost coinciding with the picking period and moderate rainfall ranging from 300 -700 mm are the features of the north zone. In the Southern and Central zones, the climate is equal .
