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Daily Prelims Test – 18_February 2021

Consider the following Statements regarding Lieutenant Governor

Only three Union Territories Andaman & Nicobar, Delhi and Puducherry Union Territories have Lt. Governors.

Lt. Governor is a constitutional head.

LG of Delhi enjoys greater powers than the LG of Puducherry.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only 

Explanation:

In NEWS: President Kovind removes Kiran Bedi as Puducherry L-G

  • Kiran Bedi was removed as Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry. Telangana Governor Tamilisai Soundararajan has been given the additional charge of Puducherry.
  • The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 provides for a Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry (as Puducherry was then called), with a Council of Ministers to govern the “Union Territory of Pondicherry”.

Who is Lieutenant Governor?

  • Article 239 provides that every UT in India shall be administered by the President, through an administrator to be appointed by him. The Lt. Governor is an administrator and not a constitutional head. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • Only three Union Territories i.e. Andaman & Nicobar, Delhi and Puducherry, have Lt. Governors. Hence statement 1 is correct

Powers of Lieutenant Governor

  • A Lieutenant Governor has the same powers of Governors:
  • The governor has the power to administer the state which is equivalent to that of the President.
  • The governor can appoint Chief Ministers, Ministers, the State Election Commissioner and judges of the District Courts.
  • The governors serve as Chancellors of all the universities in the state.
  • The governor can also dissolve the state Assembly if they see the need, and if the Assembly is not in session, they can promulgate ordinances.
  • The governor can also disqualify a legislator based on the recommendation of the Election Commission.
  • The Governor holds the power to rule the state in case the ruling party loses its majority in the Assembly.

Comparison with powers of LG of Delhi:

  • The powers of the LG of Puducherry are different from the ones of the LG of Delhi, the other UT that has an elected legislature and government.
  • The LG of Delhi has “Executive Functions” that allow him to exercise his powers in matters connected to public order, police and land “in consultation with the Chief Minister, if it is so provided under any order issued by the President under Article 239 of the Constitution”. Simply put, the LG of Delhi enjoys greater powers than the LG of Puducherry. Hence statement 3 is correct
  • While the LG of Delhi is also guided by the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991, and the Transaction of Business of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Rules, 1993, the LG of Puducherry is guided mostly by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963.
  • Articles 239 and 239AA of the Constitution, as well as the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991, clearly underline that Delhi is a UT, where the Centre, whose eyes and ears are the LG, has a much more prominent role than in Puducherry.
  • Under the constitutional scheme, the Delhi Assembly has the power to legislate on all subjects except law and order and land. However, the Puducherry Assembly can legislate on any issue under the Concurrent and State Lists. However, if the law is in conflict with a law passed by Parliament, the law passed by Parliament prevails.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/kiran-bedi-ceases-to-hold-post-of-puducherry-lieutenant-governor-rashtrapati-bhavan/article33853949.ece


Consider the following Statements

  1. The concept of sedition was introduced under Section 124A under the Indian Penal Code in 1870 and was drafted by Thomas Macaulay.
  2. Sedition is a cognisable, non-bailable offence and the sentence can be between three years to imprisonment for life for sedition.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: Don’t invoke sedition to quieten disquiet, says Delhi court, grants bail to 2

  • THE LAW of sedition “is a powerful tool in the hands of the state” and “cannot be invoked to quieten the disquiet under the pretence of muzzling the miscreants”, a Delhi court observed while granting bail to two men facing that charge for allegedly sharing a Facebook post on the Delhi Police during the farmers’ protest.

What is Sedition?

  • The concept of sedition was introduced under Section 124A under the Indian Penal Code in 1870. It was drafted by Thomas Macaulay. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The section was introduced initially to deal with increasing Wahabi activities between 1863 and 1870. These activities posed a challenge to the colonial government.
  • However, in the 19th and early 20th Centuries, the law was mainly used against Indian political leaders seeking independence from British rule.
  • Sedition is a cognisable (No need Court warrant to arrest the person), non-compoundable, and non-bailable offence. The sentence can be between three years to imprisonment for life for sedition. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • A person charged under this law can’t apply for a government job. They have to live without their passport. Apart from that, they must present themselves in the court as and when required.

Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar,1962:

  • The Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality of Section 124-A (sedition) on the basis that this power was required by the state to protect itself.
  • However, it said that every citizen has a right to say or write about the government by way of criticism or comment. A citizen can criticize the government to the extent, it does not incite people into violence.

Source: TH/IE


The word ‘Coelacanth’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to 

  1. fossils of a kind of dinosaurs 
  2. an early human specie
  3. a cave system found in North -East India 
  4. living fossil of a giant fish

Answer: (d) living fossil of a giant fish

Explanation:

In NEWS: Palaeontologist discovers ancient, enormous Caelocanth species by accident

  • Palaeontologists from University of Portsmouth claimed they have discovered fossils of coelacanth, a giant fish that have been even around before the dinosaurs. Hence option (d) is correct
  • They pegged the fossil to be 66 million years old — putting it in the Cretaceous era. Coelacanths, which can grow as big as white sharks, were thought to be extinct.
  • Coelacanths are elusive, deep-sea creatures, living in depths up to 2,300 feet below the surface.
  • These were thought to have gone extinct with the dinosaurs 65 million years ago. But its discovery in 1938 started a debate about how this lobe-finned fish fits into the evolution of land animals.
  • Living Fossil is an organism that has remained unchanged from earlier geologic times and whose close relatives are usually extinct. Other than Coelacanth, Horseshoe crab and ginkgo trees are examples of living fossils.
  • However, in their new study, palaeontologists have found that Coelacanths gained 62 new genes through encounters with other species 10 million years ago. This suggests that they are actually evolving, albeit slowly.
  • There are only two known species of coelacanths: one that lives near the Comoros Islands off the east coast of Africa, and one found in the waters off Sulawesi, Indonesia.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/palaeontologist-discovers-ancient-enormous-caelocanth-species-by-accident-75544


Consider the following Statements regarding Animal Welfare Board of India

  1. It is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
  2. It is established in 1962 under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
  3. It consists of 10 Members and the term of office of Members is for a period of 5 years.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only 

Explanation:

In NEWS: AWBI (The Animal Welfare Board of India) Awards Dedicated for Animal Welfare and Protection-2021 Held on Auspicious Day of Vasant Panchami at New Delhi

The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI), the apex body in the country for the welfare and protection of animals, established under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 conferred 14 Prani Mitra awards and JeevDaya awards 2021 to the individuals, organizations and corporates for their outstanding performance in the field of animal welfare.

About ANIMAL WELFARE BOARD OF INDIA

  • The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
  • The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
  • The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Food and Agriculture. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides.
  • It frames a range of rules on how animals ought to be humanely treated everywhere. It has also frequently litigated to have stricter laws to ensure animals were not unduly harassed or tortured.
  • HQ shifted to Ballabhgarh in Faridabad District of Haryana from Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1698588


Consider the following Statements regarding New York Convention

  1. The aim of the Convention is to ensure the foreign and non-domestic arbitral awards should not be discriminated against by courts asked to enforce them
  2. India is not a party to the Convention.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only 

Explanation:

In NEWS: Cairn files case in U.S. to push India to pay $1.2 bn award

  • Cairn Energy has filed a case in a U.S. district court to enforce a $1.2 billion arbitration award it won in a tax dispute against India
  • In December, the international arbitration tribunal in The Hague had ruled that India’s demand of Rs 10,247 crore from Cairn in past taxes was not valid. The retrospective tax demand was on alleged short-term capital gains that the company had made when it transferred ownership from Cairn UK Holdings to Cairn India in 2006.
  • The tribunal had ruled that India’s demand was in breach of an bilateral investment protection pact with the United Kingdom, and told New Delhi to pay $1.2 billion crore as damages to the oil company.
  • Cairn aims to enforce the award under international arbitration rules, commonly called the New York Convention, and recover losses caused by India’s “unfair and inequitable treatment of their investments

About New York Convention

  • The Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards is commonly known as the New York Convention.
  • It was adopted by a UN diplomatic conference on 10 June 1958 and entered into force on 7 June 1959.
  • The Convention’s principal aim is that foreign and non-domestic arbitral awards should not be discriminated against by courts asked to enforce themHence statement 1 is correct
  • It obliges Contracting States to ensure foreign awards are recognised and generally capable of enforcement in their jurisdiction in the same way as domestic awards.
  • To require courts of Contracting States to uphold valid arbitration agreements and stay court proceedings in respect of matters which the parties have agreed should be resolved by arbitration.
  • By signing up to the Convention, a state agrees that its courts will respect and enforce parties’ agreements to arbitrate, and to recognise and enforce any resulting arbitral award in its jurisdiction subject to only very limited grounds for refusal.
  • The Convention has 166 state parties (Countries).
  • India is a party to the ConventionHence statement 2 is correct

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/cairn-files-case-in-us-to-push-india-to-pay-12-bn-award/article33854980.ece


Consider the following Statements regarding Chishti Order

It was founded in India by Khwaja Moin-Uddin Chishti

It believed in love as the bond between God and individual soul and tolerance between people of different faiths

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both1 and 2 

Explanation:

In NEWS: Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi offers “Chadar” at Dargah Ajmer Sharif on behalf of Prime Minister

  • Union Minister for Minority Affairs Shri Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi today offered ‘Chadar’ on behalf of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi at Ajmer Sharif Dargah of Sufi Saint Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti on the occasion of 809th Urs
  • The Urs festival is an annual festival held at Ajmer in Rajasthan which commemorates the death anniversary of Sufi saint Moinuddin Chishti.

Sufi movement in India

  • The Sufi movement in India commenced in the 11th century A.D. Al Hujwiri, who established himself in north India was buried in Lahore and regarded as the oldest Sufi in the sub-continent.
  • Among the important Sufi Orders in the history of Medieval India were those of the Chishtitiya, Suhrawardiya, Qadiriya and Naqshbandiya.
  • Chisti and the Suhrawardisilsilahs were popular during the Sultanate period.
  • The Suhrawardis were active in Punjab and Sindh while the Chishti’s were active in Delhi, Rajasthan and parts of the western Gangetic plains. By the end of the sultanate period Chishti’s spread to the eastern regions of the Gangetic plain (Bihar and Bengal) and into the Deccan.
  • During the medieval period the Sufis played an important role in interpreting and elaborating on Islamic theological concepts like WahdatulWujud (unity of being) and also encouraged the development of practices like Ziyarat (the practice of visiting tombs).

About ChishtiSilsilah

  • The Chisti Order was established in India by MuinuddinChishti who moved to India after the invasion of Muizzuddin Muhammad Ghori and subsequently to Ajmer in 1206. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The fame of KhwajaMuinuddin grew after his death in 1235.
  • The patronage of this dargah peaked after the reign of the Mughal emperor Akbar.
  • The Chishtis believed in love as the bond between God and individual soul and tolerance between people of different faiths. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • They accepted disciples irrespective of their religious beliefs.
  • They associated with Hindu and Jain yogi’s, and used simple language.
  • It emphasised the doctrine of the unity of being with God (waḥdat al-wujūd) and members of the order were also pacifists.
  • They rejected all material goods as distractions from the contemplation of God.
  • They abstained from connection with the secular state.
  • Another important saint of this order was Nizamuddin Auliya. He lived in the fourteenth century, during a period of political change and turmoil. During his lifetime he was witness to the establishment of the Khalji rule after the death of Balban and subsequently the establishment of the Tughlaq’s.
  • The Chishty teachings were carried forward and popularized by disciples of Khwaja Moin-Uddin Chishti like Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, Fareeduddin Ganj-e-Shakar, Nizam uddin Auliya and Naseeruddin Charagh.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1698403


Consider the following Statements regarding Clean Coal Centre

It is a technology collaboration programme organized under the auspices of the UNFCCC

It aims to focus on reducing emissions of CO2 and other pollutants from coal use through High Efficiency, Low Emissions (HELE) technologies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Coal burning responsible for heavy air pollution in India: IEACCC study

  • Coal-based thermal power stations with no pollution control technology are responsible for over half sulphur dioxide (SO2), 30 per cent oxides of nitrogen (NOx), about 20 per cent particulate matter (PM), among other man-made emissions in the country. 
  • Unabated burning of coal in thermal power stations and a delay in implementation of latest carbon capture storage technology are among major reasons of air pollution in India, according to a recent study. 
  • The study by the International Energy Agency’s Clean Coal Centre (IEACCC) recommended implementation of emission norms at coal-based thermal power stations (TPP) at the earliest.
  • The IEACCC study recommended retirement of old coal-fired power stations to limit pollution and improve the fleet efficiency. The study underlined the “lip-service stand” taken by the Union governments in running cleaner coal power plants in India.
  • Adopting carbon-capture storage (CCUS) is equally important to reduce emissions, according to the study.
  • CCUS is the process of capturing waste carbon dioxide, transporting it to a storage site and depositing it where it will not enter the atmosphere.
  • The report added that land forms along the coasts of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu as well as parts of Rajasthan can act as good reserves. The study called the international community through multi-national banks and other sources to invest in deployment of CCUS in India. It also urged the country to include it as a part of its climate commitment.

About Clean Coal Centre

  • It is a technology collaboration programme, organised under the auspices of the International Energy Agency. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • It is non-profit making and is funded primarily by member subscription.
  • It has 17 members, made up of contracting parties and sponsoring organisations.
  • India’s Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is a sponsoring organisation.

Mission

  • To providing independent information and analysis on how coal can become a cleaner source of energy, compatible with the UN Sustainable Development Goals.
  • To promote best practice in all aspects of coal production, transport, processing and utilisation.
  • To address the role of coal in the energy trilemma and the need to balance security of supply, affordability and environmental issues. 
  • To focused on reducing emissions of CO2 and other pollutants from coal use through high efficiency, low emissions (HELE) technologies. In the future, this must include carbon capture, utilisation and storage (CCUS) to reach the two degrees target agreed at COP 21. Hence statement 2 is correct

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/air/coal-burning-responsible-for-heavy-air-pollution-in-india-ieaccc-study-75536


The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme often seen in news is related to-

Manufacture of Telecom sector

Khadi and Village Industries

Investment in Education

Development programmes for rural poor women

Answer: (a) Electronics manufacture

Explanation:

In NEWS: Union Cabinet approves production-linked incentive scheme for telecom sector

  • The approval of the PLI scheme was given for telecom and network equipment manufacturing in a bid to boost the local manufacturing of the components.
  • PLI scheme on telecom sector will be effective from April 1, 2021.
  • The Department of Telecom (DoT) now be given the final approval from the Union cabinet.
  • Now, the DoT will invite the companies for applications.
  • Under the PLI scheme, Telecom manufacturing will be boosted for over 5 years in order to enhance the production of more than Rs 2.4 lakh crore.
  • The scheme will cater to the core transmission equipment, 4G/5G and next-generation radio access network & wireless equipment, Internet of Things (IoT) access devices, access and customer premise equipment (CPE) and enterprise equipment like switches and router.

About Production Linked Incentive Scheme

  • Production Linked Incentive Scheme intends to promote manufacture of Telecom and Networking Products in India and proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract investments in the target segments of telecom and networking products in order to encourage Make in India. Hence option (a) is correct
  • The scheme will also encourage exports of telecom and networking products ‘Made in India’.
  • Support under the Scheme will be provided to companies and entities engaged in manufacturing of specified telecom and networking products in India.

Source: http://www.newsonair.com/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=410042


Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved signing of the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA) between India and :

Mauritius

Madagascar

Libya

Egypt

Answer: (a) Mauritius

Explanation:

In NEWS: Cabinet Approves Comprehensive Economic cooperation And Partnership Agreement between India and Mauritius

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has approved signing of the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA) between India and Mauritius. Hence option (a) is correct
  • The India-Mauritius CECPA will be the first trade Agreement to be signed by India with a country in Africa. 
  • The Agreement is a limited agreement, which will cover Trade in Goods, Rules of Origin, Trade in Services, Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures, Dispute Settlement, Movement of Natural Persons, Telecom, Financial services, Customs Procedures and Cooperation in other Areas
  • CECPA provides for an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve trade between the two countries.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/news-cm/cabinet-approves-comprehensive-economic-cooperation-and-partnership-agreement-between-india-and-mauritius-121021700804_1.html


With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic tales was the profession of who of the following? 

  1. Shramana 
  2. Parivraajaka 
  3. Agrahaarika 
  4. Maagadha

Answer: (d) Maagadha

Explanation:

  • During Gupta period, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories or epic tales was the work of a different group of people, the sutas and magadhas. Hence option (d) is correct