Consider the following statements
- CMS-01 is envisaged to provide services in the extended-C Band of the frequency spectrum that will cover the Indian mainland, the Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands.
- The satellite will be placed in the specified slot in the geosynchronous orbit.
- CMS-01 is the 42nd communication satellite from India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 only
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In News: PSLV-C50 injects communication satellite CMS-01 into orbit
- CMS-01 is envisaged to provide services in the extended-C Band of the frequency spectrum that will cover the Indian mainland, the Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was India’s 42nd communication satellite with a mission life of over seven years. Hence statement 3 is correct
- The satellite will be placed in the specified slot in the geosynchronous orbit. Subsequently, it will function as the continuation of GSAT11 launched 11 years back.” hence statement 2 is correct.
- PSLV-C50 is the 52nd flight of PSLV and 22nd flight of PSLV in ‘XL’ configuration (with 6 strap-on motors).
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/pslv-c50-lifts-off-successfully-injects-communication-satellite-cms-01-into-pre-defined-orbit/article33355303.ece
Recently, Bangabandhu seen in the news, who among the following refer to “Bangabandhu”
- Jawaharlal Nehru
- Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
- MoulanaAbulkalamAsad
- Mohammed Ali Jinnah
Answer: b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
Explanation:
In NEWS: List of MoUs/Agreements signed during the India-Bangladesh Virtual Summit
- The two sides jointly inaugurated the Bangabandhu-Bapu Digital Exhibition.
- The two sides jointly inaugurated a railway link between Haldibari in India and Chilahati in Bangladesh during the summit. Haldibari – Chilahati route will be beneficial for transit into Bangladesh from Assam and West Bengal.
- Before joining politics, Rahman studied law and political science in Kolkata and Dhaka and agitated for Indian independence.
- He is referred to as Sheikh Mujib or simply Mujib, the title ‘Bangabandhu’ meaning ‘friend of Bengal’. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1681417
Consider the following statements
- Indian Parliament meets for five sessions in a year.
- The summoning of the Parliament is specified in the Article 85 of the Indian Constitution
- Centrallegislature had to be summoned to meet at least once a year, and that not more than 12 months could elapse between two sessions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS:Winter session cancelled, a look at how Parliament is convened
- The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government.
- The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law.
- The decision of the Committee is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session.
- The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. This provision specified that the central legislature had to be summoned to meet at least once a year, and that not more than 12 months could elapse between two sessions. Hence statement 2 and statement 3 is correct.
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parliament-winter-session-lok-sabha-rajya-sabha-7107893/
With reference to the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA), consider the following statements
- WADAis a foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee to promote, coordinate and monitor the fight against drugs in sports.
- The agency’s key activities include monitoring of the World Anti-Doping Code, whose provisions are enforced by the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport.
- WADA’s headquarter is in Washington
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: India strengthens its commitment to Clean Sport, contributes USD 1 million to WADA for scientific research
- The World Anti-Doping Agency is a foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee to promote, coordinate and monitor the fight against drugs in sports. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The agency’s key activities include monitoring of the World Anti-Doping Code, whose provisions are enforced by the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Headquarters are in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- India has pledged a sum of USD 1 million to the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) towards the global agency’s scientific research budget, which will allow WADA to develop innovative anti-doping testing and detection methods.
Source http://ddnews.gov.in/sports/india-strengthens-its-commitment-clean-sport-contributes-usd-1-million-wada-scientific
Consider the following statements regarding Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
- DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services and the Indian Coast Guard.
- The President of India is the Chairman of the Council.
- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
In News: Big boost to Make in India: Defence Acquisition Council headed by RakshaMantri Shri Rajnath Singh approves proposals to procure equipment worth Rs 27,000 cr from domestic industry
- The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Minister of Defence is the Chairman of the Council. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) in its meeting, held under the Chairmanship of RakshaMantriRajnath Singh approved proposals to procure equipment worth Rs 28,000 crore.
- This is the first meeting of the DAC under the new regime of Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 and these are the first set of Acceptance of Necessity (AoNs) accorded with majority AoNs being accorded in the highest categorization of Buy Indian (IDDM).
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1681456
Consider the following statements regarding Review Petition
- Under Article 137 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
- As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Prashant Bhushan moves Supreme Court, seeks hearing on his plea before review petitions are considered
- Activist-lawyer Prashant Bhushan on moved the Supreme Court seeking a direction that his two pleas, in which he has sought review of the orders convicting and sentencing him for contempt of court for his tweets against the judiciary, be heard after adjudication of his separate petition raising the issue of right to appeal in such matter.
So what is a review petition and when can it be filed?
- A judgment of the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land, according to the Constitution. It is final because it provides certainty for deciding future cases. However, the Constitution itself gives, under Article 137, the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Generally, review petition takes place when the verdict from the Supreme Court’s final authority is entertained under specific and narrow grounds.
- It allows correcting grave errors that have resulted in the injustice instead of taking a fresh stock of the case.
- In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court itself laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered — the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him; mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or any other sufficient reason. In subsequent rulings, the court specified that “any sufficient reason” means a reason that is analogous to the other two grounds.
Who can file a review petition?
- It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order.
What if a review petition fails?
- In RoopaHurra v Ashok Hurra (2002), the court itself evolved the concept of a curative petition, which can be heard after a review is dismissed to prevent abuse of its process.
- A curative petition is also entertained on very narrow grounds like a review petition and is generally not granted an oral hearing.
Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of separation of power
- It is not a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution
- It is not explicitly mentioned in the constitution of India
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained: Maharashtra House resolution on Arnab Goswami, and its face-off with judiciary
- The decision by both Houses of the Maharashtra State Legislature to not respond to any notice sent by the High Court or the Supreme Court in the Breach of Privilege motion against Republic TV editor and anchor Arnab Goswami has added a new twist to the debate over the separation of powers between the judiciary and legislature.
What is the doctrine of separation of power?
- The doctrine of separation of power is a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution, even though it is not specifically mentioned in its text. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
- It implies that the three pillars of democracy, namely the executive, judiciary and legislature, perform separate functions and act as separate entities.
- One of the features of the doctrine is that one arm of the state should not interfere in the functioning of the other organs or exercise a function of another organ.
- Article 50: State shall take steps to ensure separation of judiciary from the executive. It will ensure independence of judiciary.
Some basic structures listed by the constitution are as follow:
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- Unity and sovereignty of India
- Democratic and republican form of government
- Federal character of the Constitution
- Secular character of the Constitution
- Separation of power
- Individual freedom
- Rule of law
- Judicial review
- Parliamentary system
- Rule of equality
- Harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP
- Free and fair elections
- Limited power of the parliament to amend the Constitution
- Power of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 142 and 147
- Power of the High Court under Articles 226 and 227
Consider the following statements regarding Golden Peacock Environment Management Award
- It was instituted in 1998 by World Economic Forum
- Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) has been awarded with the prestigious Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2020 for the Steel Sector.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: SAIL gets Golden Peacock Environment Management Award
- Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) has been awarded with the prestigious Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2020 in the Steel Sector by the Institute of Directors. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Lauding the efforts of SAIL collective, Chairman, SAIL Anil Kumar Chaudhary said, the company has been the winner of this award for successive two years and this bears testimony to the efforts made by it for sustainable and environmentally responsible steel making.
- This award is one of the most coveted awards in the category.
- He said, considering various environmental issues leading to global warming and climate change, the award encourages corporates to enhance their environmental performance and to compete with peers to set benchmarks
About Golden Peacock Environment Management Award
- Golden Peacock Environment Management Award is the coveted and prestigious recognition that your organization could strive to win for environment management.
- World Environment Foundation (WEF) takes pride to have instituted the Annual Award in 1998. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Awards shall be presented at the Annual ‘World Congress on Environment Management’, to organizations adjudged to have attained significant achievements in the field of Environment Management
About Golden Peacock Award
- It is instituted by the Institute of Directors (IOD), India in 1991.
- Its purpose is to create a competition for raising overall performance standards and recognise the achievements of the best performing organisations.
- All institutions whether public, private, non-profit, government, business, manufacturing and service sector are eligible to apply.
- The Awards are bestowed annually and are designed to encourage total improvement in each sector of our business.
Source: http://newsonair.com/News?title=SAIL-gets-Golden-Peacock-Environment-Management-Award&id=406206
Consider the following statements regarding Monarch Butterflies
- They are native to North and South America
- It is listed as ‘Not Evaluated’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: U.S. says monarch butterflies deserve protection, but must wait in line
- Monarch butterflies deserve federal protection under the Endangered Species Act, U.S. President Donald Trump’s administration said on Tuesday, but the black-and-orange insects must wait in line behind 161 other species facing more imminent threats
- The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service said it expects to list these winged pollinators for protection under the landmark conservation law in fiscal 2024, which begins on Oct. 1, 2023.
About Monarch Butterflies
- Monarch butterflies are native to North and South America, but they’ve spread to other warm places where milkweed grows. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- There are also populations in Hawaii, Portugal, Spain, Australia, New Zealand and elsewhere in Oceania.
- In the east, only monarchs that emerge in late summer or early fall make the annual migration south for the winter.
- Monarch butterflies, known for migrating thousands of miles across North America, have experienced a decades-long U.S. population decline due to habitat loss caused by human activities.
- It is listed as ‘Not Evaluated’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The monarch butterfly is known by scientists as Danausplexippus, which in Greek literally means “sleepy transformation”.
With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote
- measurement of land
- coins of different monetary value
- classification of urban land
- religious rituals
Answer: (a) measurement of land
Explanation:
The agricultural crops constituted the main resources which the society produced and the major part of the revenue of the state came from the agriculture. Various types of land are mentioned in the inscriptions; land under cultivation was usually called Kshetra, Khila was the uncultivable land, Aprahata was the jungle or forest land, Gopata Sarah was the pasture land and Vasti was the habitable land. Different land measures were known in different regions such as Nivartana, Kulyavapaand Dronavapa. In the inscriptions of Bengal terms like Kulyavapa and Dronavapa are used. It is not possible to classify the regions precisely according to the crops grown, but all the major categories of crops – cereals like barley, wheat and paddy, different varieties of pulses, grams and vegetables as well as cash crops like cotton and sugarcane – were known long before the Gupta period and continued to be cultivated. Hence option (a) is correct
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