With reference to Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme, consider the following statements:
1) It was launched by the ministry of Defence.
2) It is aimed to boost domestic defence and aerospace manufacturing.
3) The projects under the scheme will be provided with up to 100% govt funding in the form of ‘Grants in Aids’
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme
- In order to boost domestic defence and aerospace manufacturing, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has launched Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS) with an outlay of Rs 400 crore for creating state-of-the-art testing infrastructure in partnership with the private industry. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- The scheme would run for the duration of five years and envisages setting up of 6-8 Greenfield Defence Testing Infrastructure facilities that are required for defence and aerospace related production. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- The projects under the scheme will be provided with up to 75 per cent Government funding in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.
- The remaining 25 per cent of the project cost will have to be borne by the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) constituents of which will be the Indian private entities and state governments.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746365
Consider the following statements regarding Visceral Leishmaniasis:
1) It is one of the neglected tropical diseases.
2) It is caused by a parasite called Leishmania which is transmitted through the bite of sand flies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Non-invasive, easy to administer, cost-effective bio-nanocarrier can enhance oral bioavailability and efficacy of Visceral Leishmaniasis therapy
- Indian researchers have developed a non-invasive, easy to administer, cost-effective, and patient compliant potential therapeutic strategy against Visceral Leishmaniasis, a neglected tropical disease.
- Their strategy based on nano carrier-based oral drugs coated with Vitamin B12 enhanced oral bioavailability and efficacy of the therapy by more than 90%.
- The research showed that Vitamin B12 being an essential life saving micronutrient works as an innovative and beneficial supplement for its treatment and prevention.
- It improves the bioavailability and targeted delivery by utilizing the natural intrinsic Vitamin B12 pathway, which is present in the human body and hence developing resistance for infection spread.
- What is Visceral Leishmaniasis?
- Visceral Leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, substantial weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and anaemia.
- Leishmaniasis is a neglected tropical disease affecting almost 100 countries including India. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- Leishmaniasis is caused by the protozoan Leishmania parasites which are transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies. Hence statement (2) is correct.
- There are 3 main forms of leishmaniasis visceral (also known as kala-azar, which is and the most serious form of the disease), cutaneous (the most common), and mucocutaneous.
- Leishmania parasites are transmitted through the bites of infected female phlebotomine sandflies, which feed on blood to produce eggs.
The epidemiology of Leishmaniasis depends on:
- The characteristics of the parasite and sandfly species;
- The local ecological characteristics of the transmission sites;
- Current and past exposure of the human population to the parasite; and
- Human behaviour
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746341
Consider the following statements regarding National Gene Bank:
1) It aims to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations in the form of seeds, genomic resources, pollen etc.
2) It is hosted by the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources, New Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Union Agriculture Minister inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished gene bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources
- The Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished state-of-the-art National Gene Bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR).
- Gene Banks are a type of biorepository which preserve genetic material. A collection of seed plants, tissue cultures etc.
- A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA).
- About National Gene Bank
- The National Gene Bank established in the year 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations, has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds. Hence statement (1) is correct
- Hosted By: National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR), New Delhi. Hence statement (2) is correct
- Presently it is protecting 4.52 lakh accessions, of which 2.7 lakh are Indian germplasm and the rest have been imported from other countries.
- The NGB has four kinds of facilities, namely, Seed Genebank (- 18°C), Cryogenebank (-170°C to -196°C), In vitro Genebank (25°C) and Field Genebank, to cater to long-term as well as medium-term conservation.
- It stores different crop groups such as cereals, millets, medicinal and aromatic plants and narcotics, etc.
- About National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources(NBPGR):● The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources(NBPGR) was established in 1977 by renaming the National Bureau of Plant Introduction as NBPGR.
- Parent Institute: It is one of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) Institutes.
- Mandate: To act as the nodal institute at the national level for acquisition, management and genomics-based profiling of indigenous and exotic plant genetic resources (PGR). The PGR is collected for food and agriculture and to carry out related research and human resources development for sustainable growth of agriculture.
- Headquarters: New Delhi.
- Significance: NBPGR is meeting the need of in-situ and ex-situ germplasm conservation through Delhi Headquarters and 10 regional stations in the country.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746485
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) recently in news associated with which of the following?
a) European Union
b) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer :(a) EU
Explanation:
EU Commission is pushing for the world’s first carbon border tax on imported goods like carbon-intensive steel. The 27-nation bloc plans to levy the tax in a phased manner from 2026. It directs non-EU companies exporting to Europe to pay the same price for their carbon footprint in Europe as European companies.
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is part of the EU’s ambitious new targets to curb climate change ahead of the 26th United Nations Climate Change conference (COP26) in Glasgow at the end of this year.
Consider the following statements regarding Positive Pay System:
1) It is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India.
2) It is a fraud detection tool adopted by banks to protect customers against forged, altered or counterfeit cheques.
3) The banks enable this facility for all account holders issuing cheques for amounts of ₹50,000 and above.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: Explained | What is the Positive Pay System for high-value cheques?
- RBI had issued guidelines for banks to implement this system from January 1, 2021, to safeguard against cheque frauds
- Banks have been informing customers about making mandatory the positive pay system, a process of reconfirming the key details of high-value cheques.
- What is Positive Pay System Mechanism?
- It is a fraud detection tool adopted by banks to protect customers against forged, altered or counterfeit cheques. Hence statement (1) is correct.● It cross verifies all details of the issued cheque before funds are encashed by the beneficiary.
- The concept of Positive Pay involves a process of reconfirming key details of large-value cheques.
- It ensures that every high-value cheque valued at Rs 50,000 and above is crossed checked with details provided by the issuing party or the individual. Hence statement (3) is correct
- This will cover approximately 20 percent of transactions by volume and 80 per cent by value.
- The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) will develop the facility of Positive Pay in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS) and make it available to participant banks. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- Procedure– Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like SMS, mobile app, Internet banking and ATM, certain minimum details of that cheque (like date, name of the beneficiary, or payee and amount) to the drawee bank, details of which are cross-checked with the presented cheque by Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
With respect to Opposition party in Indian parliament, Consider the following statements:
1) The constitution defines the term leader of opposition in Schedule III.
2) The constitution defines that, the biggest opposition party in the House has to have at least 10% of the total strength of the house.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: No Opposition in Nagaland Assembly
- Naga People’s Front joins Neiphiu Rio govt. to work unitedly to solve the Naga issue
- The 60-member Nagaland Assembly now has no MLA in the Opposition.
- Official Opposition
- It is a term used in Parliament and State Legislatures to designate the political party which has secured the second largest number of seats in either upper or lower houses. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
- In order to get formal recognition in either upper or lower houses, the concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the house. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
- A single party has to meet the 10% seat criterion, not an alliance.
- Many of the Indian state legislatures also follow this 10% rule while the rest of them prefer the single largest opposition party according to the rules of their respective houses.
- Role of the Opposition
- The role of the opposition in the legislature is basically to check the excesses of the ruling or dominant party, and not to be totally antagonistic.
- Their main role is to question the government of the day and hold them accountable to the public. This also helps to fix the mistakes of the Ruling Party.
- The Opposition is equally responsible in upholding the best interests of the people of the country.
- They have to ensure that the Government does not take any steps, which might have negative effects on the people of the country.
In the legislature, Opposition Party has a major role, which is:
1. Constructive criticism of the government.
2. Putting restriction of the arbitrariness of ruling party
3. Safeguarding liberty and right of people
4. Preparation to form a government
5. Expression of public opinion
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/no-opposition-in-nagaland-assembly/article35938308.ece
According to a recent technical report by the National Centre for Coastal Research, consider the following statements:
1) West Bengal has the highest coastline that underwent erosion during the period 1990-2018.
2) The Odisha coastline has the highest coastline that has expanded in the period between 1990-2018.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: © Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: A third of India’s coastline underwent erosion in 28 years, Bengal worst affected
- The NCCR, an attached office of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, monitors shoreline changes along the Indian coast.
- It has carried out a national shoreline change assessment mapping for Indian coast using 28 years of satellite data from 1990 to 2018 along nine coastal states and two Union territories (UT) to provide information for coastal management strategy
- As much as 32 per cent of India’s coastline underwent sea erosion and 27 per cent of it expanded between 1990 and 2018, according to a recent technical report by the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences. Hence statement (1) is correct
- The West Bengal coastline has been particularly vulnerable: 60 percent of the coastline underwent erosion during the period, followed by Puducherry (56 per cent); Kerala (41 per cent); Tamil Nadu (41 per cent); Andhra Pradesh (28 per cent); Gujarat including Daman and Diu (26 per cent); Odisha (26 per cent); Karnataka (24 per cent); Maharashtra (22 per cent); and Goa (19 per cent). Hence statement (2) is correct.
- Odisha coast expanded by 51 per cent, the report said.
- This was followed by the coast of Andhra Pradesh, which expanded 48 per cent; Karnataka (26 per cent); West Bengal (25 percent); Tamil Nadu (22 per cent); Kerala (21 per cent); Gujarat including Daman and Diu (20 percent); Goa(14 per cent; Maharashtra (10 per cent) and Puducherry (8 per cent). Hence statement (3) is correct.
- The country’s coastline is 6,631.53 kilometres long: 2,135.65 kilometres was subject to varying degrees of erosion and 1,760.06 km expanded during this period. Nearly 2,700 km of the coastline is stable.
- As many as 98 coastal pockets of the country have been facing sea erosion. Tamil Nadu has 26 coastal areas vulnerable to sea erosion, followed by West Bengal (16); Kerala (12); Maharashtra (8); Gujarat including Daman and Diu (8); Karnataka (7); Andhra Pradesh (6); Odisha (5); Goa (3) and Puducherry (3)
Consider the following statements regarding National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management:
1) It was set up by the Ministry Of Earth Sciences.
2) It aims to promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas in India for the benefit and wellbeing of the traditional coastal and island communities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: A third of India’s coastline underwent erosion in 28 years, Bengal worst affected
- The National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change and the Central Water Commission under the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti also undertake studies on shoreline changes / coastal erosion and their impact. Hence statement (1) is correct.
- Planning and execution of anti-sea erosion measures are undertaken by the maritime states and UTs as per their own priority and from their own resources. The role of the Union government is technical, advisory and catalytic in nature
National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management:
- The Ministry set up the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai to undertake studies and research in the area of Coastal Zone Management including coastal resources and environment.
Aims and objectives of the center:
- Strive for being a World Class Knowledge Institution related to coastal zones, environment, resources, and processes
- To promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas in India for the benefit and wellbeing of the traditional coastal and island communities. Hence statement (2) is correct.▪ Advice the Union and State Governments and other associated stakeholders on policy, and scientific matters related to Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM).
- The six (06) research divisions of the NCSCM are
- Geospatial Sciences
- Integrated Social Sciences & Economics
- Coastal environmental impact assessment
- Conservation of Coastal & Marine Resources
- Knowledge, Governance and Policy, and
- Futuristic Research and
- ▪ Integrated Island Management Unit.
Consider the following statements regarding Canine Distemper Virus:
1) It is a contagious disease caused by a virus that attacks the respiratory, gastrointestinal and nervous systems of puppies and dogs.
2) There is no cure for canine distemper infection.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: African cheetahs in Kuno-Palpur: Have we assessed disease risks well
- The forest minister of Madhya Pradesh had announced in July that 10 male and 10 female cheetahs will be flown from South Africa to Gwalior in two phases in November. They will then be sent by road to the Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
- Experts have routinely flagged concerns like viability, necessity and cost associated with the cheetah reintroduction plan. However, an under-discussed issue is disease risk. When animals are being introduced to a landscape, there is a risk of disease spread to both the individual animals that are being introduced and to the wildlife species which inhabit the site chosen for reintroduction (Kuno, in this case).
- Stress of unfamiliar conditions can spur diseases, especially during translocation: IUCN
- As with any other carnivore in India, (the 20 cheetahs) will likely be exposed to CDV (canine distemper virus) from free-ranging domestic dogs as well as diseases such as feline infectious peritonitis and infection from the feline leukaemia virus, particularly under captive conditions.
- India needs thorough disease screening processes and protocols for managing threats from infections as part of the cheetah reintroduction plans.
Canine Distemper Virus
- CDV is a contagious and serious disease caused by a virus that attacks the respiratory, gastrointestinal and nervous systems of puppies and dogs. Hence statement (1) is correct. Canine distemper is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus of the family Paramyxoviridae (the same family of the viruses that causes measles, mumps, and bronchiolitis in humans).
- It is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus of the family Paramyxoviridae (the same family of viruses that causes mumps, measles, and bronchiolitis in humans). This virus is similar to measles virus in humans and rinderpest virus which affects cattle.
- Its common symptoms include high fever, eye inflammation and eye/nose discharge, labored breathing and coughing, vomiting and diarrhea, loss of appetite and lethargy, and hardening of nose and footpads.
- It affects a wide variety of animal families, including domestic and wild species of dogs, foxes, pandas, wolves, ferrets and large cats as well.
- There is no cure for canine distemper infection. Its treatment typically consists of supportive care and generic efforts to prevent infections. Hence statement (2) is correct.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
Explanation:
- Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation.
- A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt. Legal tender can only be issued by the national body that is authorized to do so. Hence option (b) is correct.
