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Daily Prelims Test – 16_August_2021

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian flag was adopted in its present form during a meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on July 22, 1947.
  2. The Tricolour was adopted as our national flag at a Congress Committee meeting in Karachi in 1931.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: 75th year of Indian Independence

  • The Vice President of India M. Venkaiah Naidu writes about how the fears and apprehensions of doomsday prophets at the time of Partition have by and large been dispelled.
  • As India celebrates its 75th Independence Day on August 15, 2021, we at The Hindu and our contributors take a look at the country’s journey since 1947.
  • The Indian flag was adopted in its present form during a meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on July 22, 1947. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • The first national flag, which consisted of three horizontal stripes of red, yellow and green, is said to have been hoisted on August 7, 1906, at the Parsee Bagan Square, near Lower Circular Road, in Calcutta (now Kolkata).
  • Later, in 1921, freedom fighter PingaliVenkayya met Mahatma Gandhi and proposed a basic design of the flag, consisting of two red and green bands.
  • After undergoing several changes, the Tricolour was adopted as our national flag at a Congress Committee meeting in Karachi in 1931. Hence statement (2) is correct.

Rules governing the display of the Tricolour –

  • The earliest rules for the display of the national flag were originally governed by the provisions of The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 and The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
  • The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 prohibits the desecration of or insult to the country’s national symbols, including the national flag, the Constitution, the national anthem and the Indian map.
  • It states that there will be no restriction on the display of the flag by public and private bodies and educational institutions except to the extent as laid down in the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.

About the Flag Code of India:

  •  In 2002, the Flag Code of India came into effect which allowed the unrestricted display of the Tricolour as long as the honour and dignity of the flag were being respected.
  •  The flag code did not replace the pre-existing rules governing the correct display of the flag; it was, however, an effort to bring together all the previous laws, conventions and practices.

The Flag Code of 2002 is divided into three parts —

  •  a general description of the tricolour,
  •  rules on display of the flag by public and private bodies and educational institutions, and
  •  rules for display of the flag by governments and government bodies.

For official display, only flags that conform to the specifications as laid down by the Bureau of Indian Standards and bearing their mark can be used.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/75th-year-of-indian-independence/article35911109.ece


 Consider the following statements regarding Kakatiya Kala Thoranam:

  1. It was located inside the Warangal fort.
  2. It was built by Ganapati Deva in the 12th Century.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Exhibition ‘Monuments of Victory & Valour To mark the 75 years of Independence inaugurated as part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav at NMA

  • The inauguration of a photo exhibition of Monuments of Victory & Valour by the National Monuments Authority (NMA), , the Minister for Tourism, Culture and Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) on the occasion of Independence Day will include photos of the Kakaitya Kala Thoranam, the fort of Jhansi Laxmi Bhai and the Vijay Stambh in Chittorgarh

Kakatiya Kala Thoranam

  • Kakatiya Kala Thoranam happens to be a historical arch in the Indian state of Telangana whose architecture is highly inspired by the Kakatiya dynasty
  • It is believed to be built by Ganapati Deva (1199-1262) during the 12th century and it has found a place in the tentative list of the UNESCO world heritage site. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  •  The gate was the part of the Swayambhusiva temple in the times gone by and was destroyed by the Muslim invader names as Ulugh Khan in the year 1323.
  •  The kakatiya Kala thoranam was located inside the Warangal fort. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  •  The historical arches of the Warangal Fort has been adopted as the symbol of the Kakatiya Dynasty and has been officially incorporated as the Emblem of Telangana for the state of Telangana

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746145


Consider the following pairs:

           Wetland site                       State

  1. Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary  -Gujarat
  2. Wadhvana Wetland                   -West Bengal
  3. Sultanpur National Park            -Haryana

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Gujarat: Thol, Wadhwana in Ramsar’s list of wetlands of international importance

  • Thol Wildlife Sanctuary near Ahmedabad and Wadhwana wetland in Vadodara are among the four wetlands of the country that have been included on the Ramsar List of Wetlands of International Importance
  • With this, the number of Ramsar listed wetlands in Gujarat goes up to three and the listings come nine year after Nalsarovar had earned the tag in 2012.
  • With this, the number of Ramsar sites in India are 46 and the surface area covered by these sites is now 1,083,322 hectares. While Haryana gets its first Ramsar sites, Gujarat gets three more after Nalsarovar which was declared in 2012
  • Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary
  • Bhindawas WLS, the largest wetland in Haryana is a human-made freshwater wetland.
  • Over 250 bird species use the sanctuary throughout the year as a resting and roosting site.
  • The site supports more than ten globally threatened species including the endangered Egyptian Vulture, Steppe Eagle, Pallas’s Fish Eagle, and Black-bellied Tern.
  • Sultanpur National Park
  • Sultanpur NP from Haryana supports more than 220 species of resident, winter migratory and local migratory waterbirds at critical stages of their life cycles.
  • More than ten of these are globally threatened, including the critically endangered sociable lapwing, and the endangered Egyptian Vulture, Saker Falcon, Pallas’s Fish Eagle and Black-bellied Tern.
  • Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
  • Thol Lake WLS from Gujarat lies on the Central Asian Flyway and more than 320 bird species can be found here.
  • The wetland supports more than 30 threatened waterbird species, such as the critically endangered White-rumped Vulture and Sociable Lapwing , and the vulnerable Sarus Crane, Common Pochard and Lesser White-fronted Goose.
  • Wadhvana Wetland:
  • Wadhvana Wetland from Gujarat is internationally important for its birdlife as it provides wintering ground to migratory waterbirds, including over 80 species that migrate on the Central Asian Flyway. Hence pair (2) is incorrect.
  • They include some threatened or near-threatened species such as the endangered Pallas’s fish-Eagle, the vulnerable Common Pochard, and the near-threatened Dalmatian Pelican, Grey-headed Fish-eagle and Ferruginous Duck.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/4-more-indian-sites-added-to-ramsar-list-as-wetlands-of-international-importance-7453467/


With respect to Indian spotted turtle, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a species of freshwater turtle endemic to South Asia.
  2. Its conservation status on the IUCN red list is endangered species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Rare turtles rescued in Maharashtra return to Assam

Sixty-three endangered turtles rescued in Maharashtra reached their native habitat in Assam

Black Spotted Turtle:

  • With its polka dot skin and prominently patterned shell, the black pond turtle has an incredibly striking appearance.
  • It is instantly recognisable by the small orange, cream or yellow wedge-shaped marks on the top of its shell
  • The black pond turtle has a short tail and webbed toes that aid with swimming and moving around in its swampy habitat.
  • This attractive turtle has a carnivorous diet, feeding predominantly on small invertebrates, such as snails.
  • The black pond turtle is a relatively rare species, found only in the Indus and Ganges river drainages in Pakistan, northern India, Bangladesh and NepalHence statement (1) is correct.
  • Its conservation status on the IUCN red list is endangered species. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • It is also listed in the Appendix 1 of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
  • The species is threatened by smuggling, once for its meat and is now sought after as an exotic pet.
  • Crowned river turtle:
  • The brahminy river turtle or crowned river turtle is a species of turtle that is endemic to South Asia.
  • It is found in northern India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh in the watersheds of theGanges, Brahmaputra, and Indus rivers.
  • IUCN STATUS: Endangered

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rare-turtles-rescued-in-maharashtra-return-to-assam/article35897092.ece


What is the aim of the Pradhan Mantri Gatishakti initiative?

  1. It is aimed at promoting entrepreneurship among SCs/STs, women communities
  2. It aims to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural areas of the country
  3. It is a project for sanitation based integrated development of all 4470 villages along the River Ganga
  4. It aims to create employment opportunities for youth in India

Answer: (d) It aims to create employment opportunities for youth in India

Explanation:

In NEWS: PM Modi announces Rs 100 lakh crore infra package, Gatishakti national master plan in I-day speech

  •  Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a Rs 100 lakh crore Pradhan Mantri Gatishakti initiative which will create employment opportunities for the country’s youth and help in holistic infrastructure growth. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • In his address, the Prime Minister highlighted that, Gatishakti-National Master Plan will be announced soon.
  • The Prime Minister also noted that India needs to increase both manufacturing and exports. Each of the products that are sold globally from India is attached to India. Thus, every product of yours is a brand ambassador for India.

Focus areas of the initiative:

  • The Gati Shakti plan will help in raising the global profile of local manufacturers.
  • It will also help manufacturers to compete with their counterparts across the world.
  • It also increases the possibilities of new future economic zones.

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-modi-announces-gatishakti-national-master-plan-all-you-need-to-know/articleshow/85343636.cms


  • 6.Recently, the term karez system is seen in news, it is related to
  1. Irrigation systems in Afghanistan
  2. Earth observation satellite launched by Iran
  3. Ballistic Missile System developed by pakistan
  4. Afforestation guidelines released by India

Answer: (a) Irrigation systems in Afghanistan

Explanation:

In NEWS: Will Afghanistan’s centuries-old ‘Karez’ system of irrigation survive the Taliban

The Taliban are set to seize Kabul, but some experts believe they will spare the age-old Karez system of underground aqueducts in the country given its importance.

What is a Qanat / Karez?

  • This system of underground vertical shafts in a gently sloping tunnel that is built from an upland aquifer to ground levelHence option (a) is correct.
  • Some historians and archaeologists have attributed people in the southeast Arabian Peninsula as the first developers. Others, however, ascribe it to the ancient Persians.
  • The Qanat / Karez system, wherever it was developed, soon spread to many Persian, Arab and Turkic lands.
  • It even came to the Indian Subcontinent during the 800-year-old Islamic Period.

Karez in India:

  • The system was brought in the Indian Subcontinent during the Bahmani Sultanate, founded by Alaudin Bahman Shah.
  • It later broke into five other Sultantates: Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar and Berar.
  • The Bahmani Sultanate was Persianate in nature and encouraged many things Persian, among them, the Karez.
  • They were built in the city of Bidar during the reign of Bahamani Sultan Ahmad Shah Wali (1422-1436), who shifted the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar.
  • By the 15thcentury, Bijapur city had a network of pipelines. Everyone got a 24×7 supply of water.
  • It also worked as a confidence-building measure between the Sultan and his subjects since the Karez was built the state.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/will-afghanistan-s-centuries-old-karez-system-of-irrigation-survive-the-taliban-78451


Consider the following statements regarding the group IBSA:

  1. It is a trilateral, developmental initiative between the Governments of India, Brazil and South Africa to promote South-South cooperation and exchange.
  2. India is the current IBSA Chair.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India organises the IBSA (India, Brazil and South Africa) Tourism Ministers’ virtual meet

  • India organized the IBSA Tourism Ministers’ Meeting to promote tourism cooperation among the member states and reviewed the intra IBSA Tourism cooperation.
  • The significant aspect of the meeting was the adoption of the IBSA Tourism Ministers Joint Statement, an outcome document on cooperation and promotion for speedy recovery of travel and tourism. 
  • The Ministers also agreed to implement various tourism activities to be actioned by respective member countries.
  • IBSA
  • IBSA is a trilateral, developmental initiative between the Governments of India, Brazil and South Africa to promote South-South cooperation and exchangeHence statement (1) is correct.
  • The aim of the IBSA is for strengthening relations between the member countries for economic development and for promoting cooperation in the field of tourism and expansion of tourism relations with a view to understand and appreciate each other’s history, culture and way of life.
  • The grouping was formalized and named the IBSA Dialogue Forum when the Foreign Ministers of the three countries met in Brasilia on 6 June 2003 and issued the Brasilia Declaration. 
  • India is the current IBSA Chair. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • India as the current IBSA Chair has planned to convene the 6th IBSA summit virtually on 5th September 2021, under the theme “Democracy for Demography and Development”. 
  • The IBSA facility for poverty and hunger alleviation (IBSA Fund) was established jointly by India, Brazil and South Africa in March 2004 and became operational in 2006 to identify replicable and scalable projects that can be disseminated to developing countries on a demand driven basis as examples of best practices in combating poverty and hunger. 

Cooperation in IBSA is on three fronts:

  • First, as a forum for consultation and coordination on global and regional political issues, such as, the reform of the global institutions of political and economic governance, WTO/Doha Development Agenda, climate change, terrorism etc.
  • Second, trilateral collaboration on concrete areas/projects, through fourteen working groups and six People-to-People Forums, for the common benefit of three countries.
  • Third, assisting other developing countries by taking up projects in the latter through IBSA Fund. IBSA’s success demonstrates, most vividly, the desirability and feasibility of South-South cooperation beyond the conventional areas of exchange of experts and training.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1745420


.Consider the following statements regarding Insolvency and Bankruptcy code 2016:

  1. The code replaced all the existing laws and created a uniform procedure to resolve insolvency and bankruptcy disputes.
  2. It aims to resolve insolvencies including the evaluation and viability determination to be completed within 180 days.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Presidential assent for Insolvency amendment Bill

  • President Ramnath Kovind has given his assent to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (amendment) Bill 2021, which was passed by the Parliament in the recently concluded monsoon session.
  • It can be seen that the bill replaces the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which was promulgated on April 4, when Parliament was not in session, and amends the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

IBC 2016

  • The code replaced all the existing laws and created a uniform procedure to resolve insolvency and bankruptcy disputes. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • It allows creditors to assess the viability of a debtor as a business decision. Further, the creditors can agree with the plan for its revival or suggest for a speedy liquidation. 
  • The code aims to resolve insolvencies in a strict time-bound manner – the evaluation and viability determination must be completed within 180 days. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • Moratorium period of 180 days (extendable up to 270 days) for the Company. For startups and small companies, the resolution time period is 90 days which can be extended by 45 days. 
  • The Code creates a new institutional framework. This framework facilitated a formal and time-bound insolvency resolution process and liquidation. The framework includes: 
  • Insolvency Professionals: They will administer the resolution process. They also manage the assets of the debtor and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision-making. 
  • Insolvency Professional Agencies: The insolvency professionals will be registered with insolvency professional agencies. The agencies would conduct examinations to certify the insolvency professionals and enforce a code of conduct for their performance. 
  • Information utilities: They will keep a record of debts given by creditors along with details of repayments/ dishonor of debt. 
  • Adjudicating authorities: They will give the approval to initiate the resolution process, appoint the insolvency professional, and approve the final decision of creditors. 
  • National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT): It is the adjudicating authority for companies and limited liability entities 
  • Debt Recovery Tribunal: It is the adjudicating authority for individuals and partnership firms. 
  • Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board:The Board will regulate insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities set up under the Code. 

Source: TH


Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Services’:

  1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
  2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

National Career Service (NCS) project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment (India) Government of India as a Mission Mode Project for establishing quick and efficient career related services. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.

The main stakeholders for the NCS would include:

  • Unemployed candidates seeking jobs
  • Students seeking career counseling
  • Candidates seeking vocational / occupational guidance
  • Illiterate, under-privileged sections of society, blue-collar workers seeking placements and guidance
  • People with different abilities (PWDs), ex-servicemen, veterans / senior citizens, etc.
  • Employers seeking suitable candidates Thus statement (2) is correct.

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: 

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of the high It debarred the high court’s from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
  • The High Court has the power to invalidate any central law which goes against the ethos of the constitution. Similar is the case with the Supreme
  • If any constitutional amendment goes against the basic structure of the constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to call it into question. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
  • In 2015, the Supreme Court declared both the 99th Constitutional Amendment, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional and null and void.