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Daily Prelims Test – 15_September 2020

 Recently, the iRAD app is seen in news, is an initiative of which of the following ministry?

  1. Ministry of Defence
  2. Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Answer: (d) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Explanation:

In NEWS: Govt moves ahead with Orientation and Training Programme of iRAD App

  • Road Transport and Highways Ministry is in the process of implementing Integrated Road Accident Database Project (iRAD) which will be applicable across the country. Hence option (d) is correct
  • In the first instance, it has been decided to implement the proposal in six states. These are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
  • The basic iRAD app has been developed and will be customized as per the requirements of concerned states. Mobile app of iRAD is available for Android platform and will be available shortly for other platforms like iOS.
  • The development and implementation of iRAD has been entrusted to lIT Madras and National Informatics Centre Services Inc.
  • The App when developed and functional, will enable the stakeholders such as the Police, Transport, Health, etc to use their mobile phones to collect accident data on the spot.

Source: http://newsonair.com/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=399707


Consider the following statements regarding Net Present Value

  1. It is a monetary approximation of the value that is lost when a piece of forest land has been razed.
  2. It was developed by a committee led by Professor Kanchan Gupta of the Institute of Economic Growth based on the mandate of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Environment Ministry rejects plea for exemption from forest penalty

The Ministry of Mines has requested the Environment Ministry to exempt it from paying Net Present Value(NPV) for digging exploratory boreholes in forests. However, the Environment Ministry has refused saying that it would be ‘inappropriate’ to grant such an exemption as this was mandated by the Supreme Court.

About Net Present Value(NPV): 

  • It is a monetary approximation of the value that is lost when a piece of forest land has been razed. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • It was developed by a committee led by Professor Kanchan Gupta of the Institute of Economic Growth based on the mandate of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • It is calculated on the basis of the services and ecological value and there are prescribed formulae for calculating this amount which depends on the location and nature of the forest and the type of industrial enterprise that will replace a particular parcel of forest.
  • The Forest Advisory Committee constituted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) decides on whether forests can be diverted for projects and the NPV to be charged.
  • Theyare used for conservation efforts like mitigating wildlife loss and biodiversity projects through the Compensatory Afforestation Fund.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/environment-ministry-rejects-plea-for-exemption-from-forest-penalty/article32584230.ece


Consider the following statements regarding Trans fatty acids

  1. These fats are largely produced naturally but a small amount also occurs artificially
  2. These fats are not harmful to the human body

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: More than 3 billion people protected from harmful trans fat in their food

  • Two years into the World Health Organization’s (WHO) ambitious effort to eliminate industrially produced trans fats from the global food supply, the Organization reports that 58 countries so far have introduced laws that will protect 3.2 billion people from the harmful substance by the end of 2021.
  • Consumption of industrially produced trans fats are estimated to cause around 500,000 deaths per year due to coronary heart disease.
  • Fifteen countries account for approximately two thirds of the worldwide deaths linked to trans fat intake.
  • Of these, four (Canada, Latvia, Slovenia, United States of America) have implemented WHO-recommended best-practice policies.
  • But the remaining 11 countries (Azerbaijan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Ecuador, Egypt, India, Iran, Mexico, Nepal, Pakistan, Republic of Korea) still need to take urgent action.

About Trans fats

  • Trans fatty acids (TFAs) or Trans fats are the most harmful type of fats which can have much more adverse effects on our body than any other dietary constituent.
  • These fats are largely produced artificially but a small amount also occurs naturally. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • TFAs pose a higher risk of heart disease than saturated fats. While saturated fats raise total cholesterol levels, TFAs not only raise total cholesterol levels but also reduce the good cholesterol (HDL), which helps to protect us against heart disease. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • Trans fats consumption increases the risk of developing heart disease and stroke.
  • The most common dietary source of Trans fats is the partially
  • hydrogenated vegetable fat commonly known as ‘Vanaspati Ghee’/Margarine.

Source: https://www.who.int/news-room/detail/09-09-2020-more-than-3-billion-people-protected-from-harmful-trans-fat-in-their-food


Consider the following statements

  1. Extra budgetary resources are those financial liabilities that are raised by Public Sector Undertakings for which repayment of entire principal and interest is done from Government budget
  2. Extra budget borrowing is included from the fiscal deficit calculations

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Govt seeks additional spending of Rs 2.35 lakh crore

  • The central government, as of now, plans to spend an additional Rs 2.35 lakh crore this financial year.
  • The document also shows that some of the big-ticket spending in the government’s Covid-19 response may be financed from extra-budgetary resources.

About extra budgetary borrowings

  • Extra budgetary resources (EBRs) are those financial liabilities that are raised by Public Sector Undertakings for which repayment of entire principal and interest is done from Government budgetHence statement 1 is correct
  • Such borrowings are made by state-owned firms to fund government schemes but are not part of the official budget calculations.
  • Extra budget borrowing is excluded from the fiscal deficit calculations, but at the same time, are added to the total debt of the government. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/govt-seeks-additional-spending-of-2-35l-cr/story-CNeDRHQzSStcMyxLd8K1tO.html


Consider the following statements

  1. Supplementary grants are the additional grant required to meet the required expenditure of the government.
  2. Supplementary grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Govt seeks parliamentary approval for additional Rs 1.67 trn expenditure

The first batch of supplementary demand for grants, tabled in the Lok Sabha by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, entails additional expenditure of Rs 2.36 trillion, but around Rs 68,868 crore will be met through savings in other schemes, showed the paper tabled in the House.

About Supplementary grants

  • The additional grant required to meet the required expenditure of the government is called Supplementary Grants. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • When grants, authorised by the Parliament, fall short of the required expenditure, an estimate is presented before the Parliament for Supplementary or Additional grants.
  • These grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • When actual expenditure incurred exceeds the approved grants of the Parliament, the Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Railways presents a Demand for Excess Grant.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India bring such excesses to the notice of the Parliament.
  • The Public Accounts Committee examines these excesses and gives recommendations to the Parliament.

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/govt-seeks-parliamentary-approval-for-additional-rs-1-67-trn-expenditure-120091400584_1.html


Consider the following statements regarding the Question Hour in the

Parliament

  1. A starred question requires an oral answer and supplementary questions cannot follow.
  2. An unstarred question requires a written answer and supplementary questions can follow.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained Ideas: As Parliament resumes, why Question Hour matters

  • The decision to go without “Question Hour” during the Monsoon Session of Parliament, beginning September 14, has evoked serious concerns about the democratic functioning of the institution.
  • Question Hour is not only an opportunity for the members to raise questions, but it is a parliamentary device primarily meant for exercising legislative control over executive actions

About Question Hour

  • Generally, the first hour of a sitting of Lok Sabha is devoted to the Questions and this hour is called the Question Hour.
  • It has a special significance in the proceedings of the Parliament. Asking of questions is an inherent and unfettered parliamentary right of members
  • Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions are of four types:— 
    (i) Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by supplementary questions by members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
    (ii) Unstarred Questions- 
    An Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary question can be asked thereonHence statement 2 is incorrect
    (iii) Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’. 
    (iv) Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that Member is responsible. 

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/question-hour-parliament-monsoon-session-explained-ideas-6595112/


Consider the following statements regarding Methanol 

  1. It is a light, volatile, colourless, flammable liquid with a distinctive alcoholic odour similar to that of ethanol.
  2. It was formerly produced by the destructive distillation of wood.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: RCF starts methanol plant in Mumbai

  • State-owned Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Ltd (RCF) has started its methanol plant at Trombay Unit, Mumbai.
  • RCF has the capacity to produce 242 tonnes of methanol per day
  • Till now, RCF has been importing methanol for its internal consumption and also for trading purposes.
  • RCF has ramped up the production of its popular complex fertiliser, SUPHALA 15:15:15 by enhancing its production from 1500 tonnes per day to 2200 tonnes per day.

About Methanol 

  • Methanol is a nondrinking type of alcohol, also known as methyl alcohol wood alcohol, or wood spirit.
  • It is a light, volatile, colourless, flammable liquid with a distinctive alcoholic odour similar to that of ethanol. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • Methanol was formerly produced by the destructive distillation of wood. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • Methanol is a promising fuel as it is clean, cheaper than fossil fuels and a good substitute for heavy fuels.
  • The modern method of preparing methanol is based on the direct combination of carbon monoxide gas and hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst.
  • Increasingly, syngas, a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide derived from biomass, is used for methanol production.
  • Methanol is widely being used in the production of pharmaceuticals, pesticides, dyestuff etc.

Source: https://www.outlookindia.com/newsscroll/rcf-starts-methanol-plant-in-mumbai/1933377


Consider the following statements regarding Commission on the Status of Women 

  1. It is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender equality and the empowerment of women.
  2. It is not a part of United nation organization

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: India beats China, becomes member of UN’s ECOSOC body

  • India, Afghanistan and China had contested the elections to the Commission on Status of Women. Even as India and Afghanistan won the ballot among the 54 members, China could not cross the half-way mark.
  • India has been elected as a member of the United Nation’s Commission on Status of Women, a body of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
  • India will be a member of United Nation’s Commission on Status of Women for four years, 2021 to ‘25.

About Commission on the Status of Women 

  • The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender equality and the empowerment of women. Hence statement 1 is correct
  • The Commission on the Status of Women is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council, one of the main UN organs within the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
  • The CSW is instrumental in promoting women’s rights, documenting the reality of women’s lives throughout the world, and shaping global standards on gender equality and the empowerment of women.
  • Headquarters location: New York, United States

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/parliament-monsoon-session-jaya-bachchan-asks-govt-to-support-film-industry/story-1VILEMgb2roXAjsgP1GwSL.html


Which of the following committee is recently formed 16-member body by the government of India to study ancient Indian culture?

  1. N. Dikshit committee
  2. Dr Sukhbir Singh Sandhu committee
  3. Ashutosh Sharma committee
  4. Aruna Sundararajan committee

Answer: (a) K.N. Dikshit committee

Explanation:

In NEWS: Formed 16-member committee to study ancient Indian culture: Union minister Prahlad Patel

  • The government has formed an expert committee for conducting a study on the origin and evolution of Indian culture dating back to around 12,000 years ago
  • The 16-member committee will include K N Dikshit, Chairman, Indian Archaeological Society, New Delhi and former Joint Director General, Archaeological Survey of India, among others. Hence option (a) is correct

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/formed-16-member-committee-to-study-ancient-indian-culture-union-minister-prahlad-patel/articleshow/78103382.cms


Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

  1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
  2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
  3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
  4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Explanation:

  • The term ‘liberty’ means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of However, liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws. The concept of liber ty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty. Hence option (b) is correct