Consider the following statements regarding Giant radio galaxies
1.It is a typical radio galaxy could be as big as 30,000 to 30 lakh light years in size.
2.They are visible only to radio telescopes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Researchers find largest sample of giant radio galaxies in universe
- Until 2016, only about 300 GRGs were known since their discovery in 1974 and, from our work, we have found nearly 400 new GRGs; the total is about 820. It is not clearly understood how some objects grow to such large scales and what is the fuel of their respective black holes.
- The study of GRGs gives us important clues to unveiling the physics and phenomenology of the black hole accretion process or, in other words, how these massive black holes accrete mass and the efficiency with which they produce these magnificent jets
About Giant radio galaxies (GRGs):
- A typical radio galaxy could be as big as 30,000 to 30 lakh light years in size.
- When some of these radio galaxies grow to enormous sizes, bigger than 33 lakh light years across, they are called giant radio galaxies (GRGs). Hence statement 1 is correct
- They are extremely weak in radio luminosity making it difficult for even a sensitive radio telescope to detect them.
- ‘Giant radio galaxies’ (GRGs), are the largest galaxies known in the universe.
- The first GRG was discovered in 1974.
- GRGs are visible only to radio telescopes. Hence statement 2 is correct
Consider the following statements regarding Forest Advisory Committee
1.It is a non-statutory Body
2.It comes under the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Oil exploration in forests to become cheaper, easier
- Oil exploration in forests is set to become cheaper and easier as the Centre has simplified norms to allow mining companies to pay a fee for the land affected by each borehole and not for the total forest area leased out for exploration, according to minutes of the Union environment ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) meeting published on its website.
- The norms were revised at an FAC’s meeting.
About Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)
- The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) is a Statutory Body created under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The Forest Advisory Committee functions under the aegis of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Hence statement 2 is correct
- While its role is advisory, it comprises of official members, including the top bosses of the forest bureaucracy and three independent experts, who are the non-official members.
- This committee considers questions on the diversion of forest land for non-forest uses such as mining, industrial projects, townships and advises the government on the issue of granting Forest Clearances.
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Brain Templates
1.It will provide more precise reference maps for Indian patients with neurological disorders like strokes, brain tumours, and dementia.
2.It is developed by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-Sciences
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- In NEWS: NIMHANS develops new Indian Brain Templates, brain atlas
- Soon, neurologists, neurosurgeons and psychiatrists in India can map the brain structure of their patients and make an accurate assessment using Indian Brain Templates (IBT) and the brain atlasdeveloped by neuroscientists from NIMHANS. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The brain size and shape differ across ages, and across regions and ethnicities, and even within a population.
- While some countries have their own scale to measure the brain, India is still dependent on the Caucasian brain template to compare and diagnose the Indian brain scans.
- The neuroscientists studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late adulthood (six to 60 years).
- The templates and atlas will provide more precise reference maps for Indian patients with neurological disorders like strokes, brain tumours, and dementia. The new templates and atlas will allow neurologists, neurosurgeons and psychiatrists in India to map the brain structure of their patients and make an accurate assessment. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The templates and atlas will also help pool useful information of the human brain and psychological functions, aiding our understanding of psychiatric illnesses like Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, autism, substance dependence, schizophrenia and mood disorders.
Consider the following statements with regarding to a Private Member Bill
1.It can be introduced by any member of Parliament
2.The admissibility of a Private Bill is decided by the Chairman in the case of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker in the case of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: GDP, LAC buzzwords as Covid-era session begins today
- Parliament’s most extraordinary session will start on Monday, with a slew of health protocols in place amid a raging coronavirus disease (Covid-19) pandemic, and with several potential flashpoints between the government and the Opposition.
- The government will bring a motion in both Houses to approve its decision to scrap Question Hour and private members’ bills during the session. The move has already sparked protests by the Opposition that may spill over in both Houses as well.
About Private Member Bill
- It is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- Its introduction in the House requires one month’s notice.
- The government bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
- The admissibility of a Private Bill is decided by the Chairman in the case of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker in the case of the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct
- No private member’s Bill has been passed by Parliament since 1970.
- To date, Parliament has passed 14 such Bills, six of them in 1956.
- In the 14th Lok Sabha, of the over 300 private member’s Bills introduced, roughly four per cent were discussed, the remaining 96 per cent lapsed without a single dialogue.
- The selection of Bills for discussion is done through a ballot.
Consider the following statements
1.Deputy Speaker of the Lok sabha is an originated in India under the provisions of Government of India act 1935.
2.Deputy Speaker performs the duties of Speaker only when the Speaker is absent
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Lok Sabha Deputy Speaker election row and Modi govt’s dilemma | Explained
- The post of Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha has been one of the bones of contention between the BJP-led Narendra Modi government and the Congress, which has renewed its campaign for the position ahead of the Monsoon Session of Parliament.
- This is the first time that the Lok Sabha has functioned for over a year without having a Deputy Speaker.
About Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms). Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
- The constitutional office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is more symbolic of parliamentary democracy than some real authority.
- There is no need to resign from their original party though as a Deputy Speaker, they have to remain impartial.
- The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
- Whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
- if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
- if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and
- if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements with regarding National Commission for Homeopathy Bill, 2019
1.It aims to sets up the National Commission for Homeopathy (NCH) which consist of 20 members, who will be appointed by the central government.
2.It proposes a common final year National Exit Test to obtain license for practice for the students.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS:Parliament monsoon session: LS passes Homoeopathy and Indian systems of medicine bills
- The bills were passed in Rajya Sabha in January, 2019, to regulate alternative systems of medicine on the lines of the National Medical Commission Bill, and create a new regulatory body for homoeopathy in the country.
- The bills were passed in Rajya Sabha in January, 2019, to regulate alternative systems of medicine on the lines of the National Medical Commission Bill, and create a new regulatory body for homoeopathy in the country.
- About National Commission for Homeopathy Bill, 2019
- The Bill sets up the National Commission for Homeopathy (NCH) which consist of 20 members, who will be appointed by the central government. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Under the Bill, the central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Homoeopathy.
- The Bill suggests for a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission in under-graduate homeopathy education.
- The Bill proposes a common final year National Exit Test to obtain license for practice for the students. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The Bill also suggests for a National Teachers’ Eligibility Test for postgraduates of homeopathy who want to make career in teaching homeopathy.
Consider the following statements with regarding Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System
1.It was developed by National Informatics Centre in association with Directorate of Public Grievances and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
2.It aims to enable submission of grievances by aggrieved citizens from anywhere and anytime (24×7) basis to Ministries/ Departments/Organizations who scrutinize and take action for speedy
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Lt Governor Manoj Sinha rolls out J&K grievance redressal system
- Jammu and Kashmir Integrated Grievance Redress and Monitoring System will be launched on a pilot basis for three districts of Jammu, Srinagar, and Reasi and will cover the remaining districts by October 2.
- The revamped system will decentralise handling and redressal of public grievances by making district collectors and deputy commissioners the primary level of receiving, disposing and monitoring grievances.
About Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System:
- CPGRAMS is an online web-enabled system over NICNET (Network of National Informatics Centre).
- It was developed by National Informatics Centre (NIC), in association with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). Hence statement 1 is correct
- CPGRAMS is the platform based on web technology.
- To enable submission of grievancesby aggrieved citizens from anywhere and anytime (24×7) basis to Ministries/ Departments/Organizations who scrutinize and take action for speedy and favourable redress of these grievances. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Tracking grievances is facilitated on this portal through system generated unique registration number.
Consider the following statements with regarding Deep vein thrombosis
1.It is a serious condition that occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein located deep inside human body.
2.Deep vein blood clots typically form in thigh or lower leg but they can also develop in other areas of human body.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Low-cost device for deep vein thrombosis
- Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum (SCTIMST), an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, has developed a device for the prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis
About Deep Vein Thrombosis:
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein located deep inside human body.
- A blood clot is a clump of blood that’s turned to a solid state. Deep vein blood clots typically form in thigh or lower leg, but they can also develop in other areas of human body.
- Causes: caused by anything that prevents blood from circulating or clotting normally, such as injury to a vein, surgery, certain medications and limited movement.
- A deep vein thrombosis can break loose and cause a serious problem in the lung, called a pulmonary embolism.
Consider the following statements
1.Bradykinin is a compound that is related to pain sensation and lowering blood pressure in the human body.
2.Bradykinin storm causes the blood vessels to expand and become leaky, leading to swelling of the surrounding tissue.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: The Hindu Explains | Is COVID-19 setting off a bradykinin storm in the body?
A supercomputer’s recent analysis of data on the contents collected earlier from the lungs of patients with the COVID-19 infection has showed that a phenomenon called a ‘bradykinin storm’ might explain how the virus works in the body, including some of the more puzzling extreme events.
About Bradykinin
- Bradykinin is a compound that is related to pain sensation and lowering blood pressure in the human body. Hence statement 1 is correct
- According to the researchers, SARS-CoV-2 uses a human enzyme called ACE2 to sneak into the cells of its host and ACE2 lowers blood pressure in the human body and works against another enzyme known as ACE (which has the opposite effect).
- The analyses further found that the virus caused the levels of ACE to fall in the lungs, and consequently pushed up the levels of ACE2.
- As a chain reaction, this increases the levels of the molecule bradykinin in the cells, causing a bradykinin storm.
- Bradykinin causes the blood vessels to expand and become leaky, leading to swelling of the surrounding tissue. Hence statement 2 is correct
- In addition, the levels of a substance called hyaluronic acid, which can absorb more than 1,000 times its own weight in water to form a hydrogel, increased
Consider the following statements:
1.The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2.The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).
- Statement 2 is not correct. Government imposes customs duty on edible oils to safeguard the interests of domestic oil crushing industry. The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty.
