KingMakers IAS Academy logo

Daily Prelims Test – 12_October_2021

1. What is Fertigation?

a)  It is a cirrus cloud thinning technique

b) It is a marine cloud brightening method

c)   It is a method of pest control or the removal of harmful micro-organisms

d) It is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system

Answer: (d) It is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system

Explanation:

In NEWS:India needs a carbon policy for agriculture

§  The UK is set to host the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (CoP26) in Glasgow from October 31 to November 12 with a view to accelerate action towards the Paris Agreement’s goals. The focus should be on climate finance and transfer of green technologies at low cost.

§  According to the Global Carbon Atlas, India ranks third in total greenhouse gas emissions by emitting annually around 2.6 billion tonnes (Bt) CO2eq, preceded by China (10 Bt CO2eq) and the United States (5.4 Bt CO2eq), and followed by Russia (1.7Bt) and Japan (1.2 Bt).

§  Agricultural soils are the largest single source of nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions in the national inventory.

§  Nitrous oxide emissions from use of nitrogen-fertiliser increased by approximately 358 per cent during 1980-81 to 2014-15.

§  An alternative for better and efficient fertiliser use would be to promote fertigation and subsidise soluble fertilisers.

Advantages of Fertigation

§  Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip systemHence option (a) is the correct answer.

§  In this system fertilizer solution is distributed evenly in irrigation. The availability of nutrients is very high therefore the efficiency is more. In this method liquid fertilizer as well as water soluble fertilizers are used.

§  Nutrients and water are supplied near the active root zone through fertigation which results in greater absorption by the crops.

§  As water and fertilizer are supplied evenly to all the crops through fertigation there is a possibility for getting 25-50 per cent higher yield.

§  Fertilizer uses efficiency through fertigation ranges between 80-90 per cent, which helps to save a minimum of 25 percent of nutrients.

§  By this way, along with less amount of water and saving of fertilizer, time, labour and energy use is also reduced substantially.

Fertilizer used in fertigation

§  Urea, potash and highly water soluble fertilizers are available for applying through fertigation.

§  Application of super phosphorus through fertigation must be avoided as it makes precipitation of phosphate salts. Thus phosphoric acid is more suitable for fertigation as it is available in liquid form.

§  Special fertilisers like mono ammonium phosphate (Nitrogen and Phosphorus), poly feed (Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium), Multi K (Nitrogen and Potassium), Potassium sulphate (Potassium and Sulphur) are highly suitable for fertigation0 as they are highly soluble in water.   Fe, Mn, Zn, Cu, B, Mo are also supplied along with special fertilisers.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/india-needs-a-carbon-policy-for-agriculture-climate-change-7564364/

2. The term Linear No-Threshold (LNT) Model is talked about in the context of

a)  Identification of Elephant corridors

b) Radiation Safety

c)   Road Rules and Regulation

d) Air traffic controller in India

Answer: (b) Radiation Safety

Explanation:

In NEWS:NRC backs Linear No-Threshold model for radiation safety

§  The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) decisively upheld the Linear No-Threshold model to prescribe radiation safety standards, ending the protracted controversy on the topic. Radiation protection specialists worldwide were eagerly awaiting the NRC’s decision.Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

§  LNT model continues to provide a sound basis for a conservative radiation protection regulatory framework that protects both the public and occupational workers.

§  The model helps the agencies to regulate radiation exposures to diverse categories of licensees, from commercial nuclear power plants to individual industrial radiographers and nuclear medical practices.

About LNT Model

§  The LNT is a dose-response model used in radiation protection to estimate stochastic health effects such as radiation-induced cancer, genetic mutations etc. on the human body due to exposure to ionizing radiation.

§  The LNT model states that biological effects such as cancer and hereditary effects due to exposure to ionising radiation increase as a linear function of dose, without threshold.

§  It provides a sound regulatory basis for minimizing the risk of unnecessary radiation exposure to both members of the public and radiation workers

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nrc-backs-linear-no-threshold-model-for-radiation-safety/article36918797.ece

3. Among the following rivers, where the most of Meghalaya’s rat-hole coal mines are located?

a)  River Mayurakshi

b) River Kolong

c)   River Simsang

d) River Lukha

Answer: (d) River Lukha

Explanation:

In NEWS: Detoxing pilot project has brought a river back from dead: Meghalaya

§  A detoxing pilot project has brought a river back from the dead

§  The Lukha — “reservoir of fish” in the local Pnar language — was considered toxic beyond redemption a decade ago.

§  The Meghalaya Pollution Control Board had in its 2012 investigative report blamed the contamination on acid mine drainage and run-off from the coal mines.

§  The Lukhariver is in the East Jaintia Hills district where most of Meghalaya’s rat-hole coal mines are located. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

§  Forest and Environment Minister said the pilot project to rejuvenate the Lukha by using algae to remove toxic contents from the water has become a success. The detoxification process is called phycoremediation.

§  Phycoremediation has improved the pH level of a critical stretch of the river. Enthused by the success of the rejuvenation process, we are going to upscale this pilot project to the rest of Lukha and other rivers as well

§  The pilot project was undertaken under the District Mineral Fund after reports of low pH levels affecting the aquatic life in the river.

§  The Lukha, draining the southern part of East Jaintia Hills, is fed by the Lunar river, its main tributary and numerous streams from the hills of the Narpuh Reserve Forest. The river flows into Bangladesh.

§  Environmentalists in Meghalaya and elsewhere have been raising an alarm over the contamination of the Lukha, marked by dead fish found afloat frequently and the colour of the water turning either blue or yellow.

§  Most living organisms, especially aquatic life, function at the optimal pH range of 6.5 to 8.5.

§  pH is a measure of how acidic/basic water is. The range goes from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. pHs of less than 7 indicate acidity, whereas a pH of greater than 7 indicates a base. The pH of water is a very important measurement concerning water quality.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/detoxing-pilot-project-has-brought-a-river-back-from-dead-meghalaya/article36926683.ece

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Dhole or Asiatic Wild Dog

1) It is a schedule I species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

2) It plays an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems.

3) It is found in three clusters across India namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, central Indian landscape and North East India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c)   1 and 2 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Conserving India’s dhole population: Study earmarks 114 talukas

§  The dhole or Asiatic Wild Dog is a Schedule II species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; its populations have been declining of late in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

§  Connectivity between isolated wildlife populations is important in today’s fragmented landscapes in order to replenish gene pools of species to prevent inbreeding.

§  Hence statement 2 is correct

§  The Western and Eastern Ghats is a stronghold region for dholes. It harbours a large number of source populations with a large proportion of land under protection.

About Dhole:

·         It is a native species to Central, South, East Asia, and Southeast Asia.

·         It is also called as Asian wild dog, Asiatic wild dog, Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red-dog, and mountain wolf.

·         It play an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems.Hence statement 2 is correct

·         It is found in three clusters across India namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, central Indian landscape and North East India.Hence statement 3 is correct

·         Besides the tiger, the dhole is the only large carnivore in India that is under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s ‘endangered’ category.

·         India supports the highest number of dholes in the world, still do not have targeted management plans for scientific monitoring of the species.

·         In tropical forests, the dhole competes with tiger and leopard, targeting somewhat different prey species, but still with substantial dietary overlap.

·         It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN as populations are decreasing and are estimated at fewer than 2,500 adults.

·         Factors contributing to this decline include habitat loss, loss of prey, competition with other species, persecution due to livestock predation and disease transfer from domestic dogs.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/conserving-india-s-dhole-population-study-earmarks-114-talukas-79636

5.Consider the following statements regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

1) It provided for the EWS 10% quota as an economic reservation in jobs and admissions in education institutes.

2) It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6)

3) It enables only centre to provide reservation to the EWS of society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c)   1 and 2 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:SC questions ₹8L annual income limit for EWS quota

§  Seeking relevant points that led to determination, a bench, headed by justiceDhananjaya Y Chandrachud launched a probe into government’s fixation of income criteria while hearing a clutch of petitions that challenged the 10% quota for EWS within All-India Quota (AIQ) seats in medical admissions.

§  The 10% EWS quota was introduced under the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019 which is under challenge before a five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court.

§  As the Act has not been stayed, the government issued a notification on July 29 introducing 10% EWS quota along with 27% quota for other backward classes (OBC) within the All-India Quota (AIQ) seats for postgraduate medical courses from this academic year.

§  Private, unaided educational institutions cannot be imposed on to implement EWS as it is violativeof rights enshrined in Article 19.

§  8 lakh income threshold is very high and will practically covers nearly 85% of the population not already covered by reservations.

About Economically Weaker Sections Quota:

·         The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided for the EWS (for Economically Weaker Sections) 10% quota as an economic reservation (10% quota) in jobs and admissions in education institutes. Hence statement 1 is correct

·         Article 15 and 16 were amended for the same.Hence statement 2 is correct

·         The act enables both Centre and the states to provide reservation to EWS, based on their definition for the same. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

·         A candidate must not fall under any SC/ST/OBC categories and fulfil the EWS economic criteria are to be part of the EWS category.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/scquestions-8l-annual-income-limit-for-ews-quota-101633630265500.html

6.Consider the following statements

1) In India, Freedom of Speech and Expression is an absolute right.

2) Freedom of Press is explicitly mentioned in the Indian constitution.

3) Article 19(1)guarantees all and only the citizens of India their freedom to speech and expression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 3 only

c)   1 and 2 only

d) 2 only

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: Explained: Nobel Peace Prize to independent journalists who stood up for freedom of expression

§  Maria Ressa of the Philippines and Dmitry Muratov of Russia received the Nobel Peace Prize “for their courageous fight for freedom of expression”.

§  The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the peace prize for defending the freedom of expression.

§  The committee expressed that Free, Independent and Fact-based journalism serves to protect against abuse of power, lies and war propaganda, which is instrumental in promoting peace.

About Freedom of Speech and Expression in Indian Constitution

§  The Article 19(1) is a Fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution which guarantees the citizens the right to freedom in certain areas.

·         It guarantees all and only the citizens of India their freedom to speech and expression.Hence statement 3 is correct

·         Freedom of Speech and Expression is not an absolute right. Restrictions were placed on it following RomeshThapar v. State of Madras (1950) judgement, by the First Amendment Bill 1951. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

·         Freedom of Press is not explicitly mentioned in the constitution, but in the landmark case of Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India, Supreme Court has stated that the Freedom of Expression is inclusive of Freedom of Press.Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The exercise of this right is subject to the following:

§  Security, Sovereignty and integrity of the state

§  International relations

§  Public Order, Defamation, Incitement of offence or immoral display

§  Suspension of rights under Article 19 when emergency is proclaimed under Article 352.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nobel-peace-prize-to-independent-journalists-who-stood-up-for-freedom-of-expression-7561342/

7. Consider the following statements

1) Load shedding is a way to distribute demand for electrical power across multiple power sources.

2) Load shedding is used to relieve stress on a primary energy sourcewhen demand for electricity is greater than the primary power source can supply.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Shortage of coal supply likely to force Maharashtra to go for load shedding

§  Amid the crisis of coal supply for power generation, 13 units of state-owned and private power generation thermal plants have stalled, leading to a shortfall of 3,330MW

§  The shortfall in power generation may affect supply and compel authorities to go for load shedding during peak hours in the next couple of days until the coal supply regularises.

About Load shedding

·         Load shedding (loadshedding) is a way to distribute demand for electrical power across multiple power sources. Hence statement 1 is correct

·         Load shedding is used to relieve stress on a primary energy source when demand for electricity is greater than the primary power source can supply.Hence statement 2 is correct

For Example,

§  Most buildings, including data centers, purchase electrical power from a utility provider. To reduce the cost of power, while also ensuring continuous operation, a building operator may negotiate an agreement with the power provider to voluntarily load shed on a pre-scheduled or on-demand basis.

§  During load shedding events, the building draws power from its secondary source(s) rather than from the utility. A typical secondary source is on-site diesel generators, or on-site or contracted solar photovoltaics or wind-based renewable power.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/shortage-of-coal-supply-likely-to-force-maharashtra-to-go-for-load-shedding-101633883703114.html

8.Which of the following options are the Criteria for membership of International Energy Agency?

1) Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports

2) Reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%

3) Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures on a national basis

4) Measures in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action

Select the correct options from the given below codes

a)  1, 3 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c)   1 and 2 only

d) 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

In NEWS:India invited to become full-time IEA member

§  International Energy Agency (IEA) has invited India, the world’s third-largest energy consumer, to become its full-time member – a proposal if accepted will require New Delhi to raise strategic oil reserves to 90 days requirement.

§  India in March 2017 became an associate member of the Paris-based body which advises industrialised nations on energy policies.

§  In January this year, IEA members and India agreed to enter into a strategic partnership, strengthening their collaboration across a range of vital areas including energy security and clean energy transition

§  India’s current strategic oil reserves equal 9.5 days of its requirement.

About IEA

§  IEA is made up of 30 member countries and eight associate nations. Four countries are seeking accession to full membership – Chile, Colombia, Israel and Lithuania.

§  In 1974 as per framework of the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.

§  Established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply.

§  The Governing Board is the main decision-making body of the IEA. It is composed of energy ministers or their senior representatives from each Member country.

Eligibility for Membership:

§  Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports.

§  Reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%.

§  Legislation and organisation to operate the Coordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis.

§  Measures in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action.Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/international-energy-agency-invites-india-to-become-full-time-member-hardeep-singh-puri/articleshow/86939592.cms

9.Consider the following statements regarding RTI Act 2005

1) Right to Information is included as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India

2) In normal course, information to an applicant is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b) 2only

c)   Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

In NEWS:Over 2 lakh RTI pleas pending

§  A complaint fled under the Right to Information Act (RTI) in Odisha this summer would not be disposed of by the State’s Information Commission until 2028 at the current rate of operations. Twelve State Information Commissions plus the Central Information Commission (CIC) would need at least a year to dispose of their appeals, and the nationwide backlog has crossed 2.55 lakh cases, according to an analysis by the SatarkNagrikSangathan (SNS).

§  The SNS report documented the performance of these commissions, highlighting the delays in disposing of cases due to both shortage of personnel and inefcient operations. A complaint fled in Odisha on July 1, 2021 would take six years and eight months to be disposed of, the longest among States.

About RTI Act 2005

·         Right to Information is not included as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India, it protects the fundamental rights to Freedom of Expression and Speech under Article 19(1)(a) and Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 guaranteed by the Constitution.Hence statement 1 is incorrect

§  RTI Act requires suomotu disclosure of information by each public authority. However, such disclosures have remained less than satisfactory.

§  It provides for disclosure of information exempted under Official Secrets Act, 1923 if larger public interest is served.

§  The Act also provides for appointment of Information Commissioners at Central and State level. Public authorities have designated some of its officers as Public Information Officer. They are responsible to give information to a person who seeks information under the RTI Act.

§  The Central Information Commission (CIC) had held that the political parties are public authorities and are answerable to citizens under the RTI Act.But in August 2013 the government introduced a Right To Information (Amendment) Bill which would remove political parties from the scope of the law.Currently no parties are under the RTI Act and a case has been filed for bringing all political parties under it.

Time period:

·         In normal course, information to an applicant is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority.Hence statement 2 is correct

§  If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.

§  In case the application is sent through the Assistant Public Information Officer or it is sent to a wrong public authority, five days shall be added to the period of thirty days or 48 hours, as the case may be.

“Right to Information” means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to:

§  Inspection of work, documents, records;

§  Taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records;

§  Taking certified samples of material;

§  Obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device.

Source: TH

10. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure is used in the context of

a)  Digital security infrastructure

b) Food security infrastructure

c)   Health care and education infrastructure

d) Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

Answer: (a) Digital security infrastructure

Explanation:

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world. The basic idea is to have one or more trusted parties digitally sign documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key belongs to a particular user or device. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.