1.Consider the following statements regarding Challenger Deep
- It is the deepest known point in the Earth’s oceans with a depth of around 10,984m.
- It is located in the Western Pacific Ocean at the southern end of the Mariana Trench
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: What is Challenger Deep, the deepest spot in the ocean?
- On June 7, astronaut and oceanographer Kathy Sullivan, who was the first American woman to walk in space in 1984, became the first woman and the fifth person in history to descend to the deepest known spot in the world’s oceans, called the Challenger Deep in the Mariana Trench, which is seven miles below the surface of the Pacific Ocean.
- According to NOAA, the average depth of the ocean is about 12,100 feet and the deepest part is called the Challenger Deep, which is located below the surface of the western Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 36,200 feet deep(10,984 m). Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct
- As per NOAA, most of the existing knowledge of the oceans comes from shallower waters, while deeper waters remain relatively unexplored, even as humans are relying more on these areas for food, energy and other resources
- Information from the deep oceans can also help to predict earthquakes and tsunamis, and help us understand how we are affecting and getting affected by the Earth’s environment.
- In 2012, film director James Cameron reached the bottom of the Mariana trench after a descent that lasted 2 hours and 36 minutes. Cameron reached a depth of about 10,908 metres on a dive in his submersible called the ‘Deepsea Challenger’ and became the first to complete a solo submarine dive to this spot.
2.Consider the following statements
- Article 263 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
- The Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956 empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river
- The award of the tribunal is final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Centre to take stock of Krishna and Godavari water utilisation
- Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister has directed the Water Resources Department to make arrangement to resolve the disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Odisha with regard to irrigation projects over Vamsadhara river.
- Andhra Pradesh wants to build the Neradi barrage across the Vamsadhara river which can be only realised after Odisha’s consent.
- The main grievance of the State of Orissa is basically adverse effect of the executive action of Govt. of Andhra Pradesh in undertaking the construction of a canal taking off from the river Vamsadhara called as flood flow canal at Katragada.
About the Inter-State Water Disputes:
- Article 262(1) of the Constitution: Parliament may by lawprovide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-State river, or river valley. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The President of India may also establish an interstate council as per Article 263 to inquire and recommend on the dispute that has arisen between the states
- The Parliament has enacted the two laws, the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956).
- Under this, Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- The Inter-State Water Disputes Actempowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The award of the tribunal is final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Hence statement 3 is correct
3.Consider the following statements
- The Constitution of India under Article 23(1) prohibits traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour
- The bonded labour system was abolished by law throughout the country by Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Don’t ‘turn a blind eye’ to the problem of bonded labour, Supreme Court tells Bihar
- The Supreme Court has asked the Bihar government not to “turn a blind eye” to the problem of bonded labour in Bihar merely because the administration was focused on handling the migrant workers’ influx amid the COVID-19 lockdown.
- The bonded labour is a specific form of forced labour in which compulsion into servitude is derived from debt. A person becomes a bonded labourer when their labour is demanded as a means of repayment for a loan.
- The Constitution of India under Article 23(1) prohibits ‘beggar’ and other similar forms of forced labour. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The bonded labour system was abolished by law throughout the country by Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976. Hence statement 2 is correct
4.Consider the following statements regarding India Rankings 2020
- It is released by the Minister of Human Resource Development for rankings of the institutions of higher education in India.
- This ranking in on the basis of their performance on five broad categories of parameters
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Union HRD Minister virtually releases “India Rankings 2020” for Higher Educational Institutions in New Delhi
- Union Minister of Human Resource Development, Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’, released “India Rankings 2020”of Institutions of Higher Education in various categories on the basis of their performance on five broad categories of parameters. Hence statements 1 and 2 is correct
- This is the fifth consecutive edition of India Rankings of the institutions of higher education in India.
- In 2020, an addition to nine rankings ie one domain “Dental” has been introduced for the first time bringing the total tally to 10 categories/subject domains.
- IIT Madras retains 1st Position in Overall Ranking as well as in Engineering,
- Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru tops the University list
- IIM Ahmedabad tops in Management Category and AIIMS occupy the top slot in the Medical category for the third consecutive year.
- Miranda College retains 1st position amongst colleges for third consecutive year
- Maulana Azad Institute of Dental Sciences, Delhi secures 1st position in “Dental” category, dental institutions included for the first time in India Rankings 2020
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1630867
5.Consider the following statements regarding Appendices I, II and III of the CITES
- Appendix I is a list of species that are the most endangered among CITES-listed animals and plants so trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
- Appendix II is a list of species that are not necessarily now threatened with extinction but that may become so unless trade is closely controlled.
- Appendix III is a list of species included at the request of a Party that already regulates trade in the species and that needs the cooperation of other countries to prevent unsustainable or illegal exploitation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
In NEWS: People importing “exotic live species” must make voluntary disclosure: Centre
- The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) has issued an advisory saying people importing “exotic live species” will have to make a voluntary disclosure.
- The Ministry has said “exotic live species” shall be construed to mean only “the animals named under the Appendices I, II and III of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora”.
About The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
- CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments.
- Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
- CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union).
- The text of the Convention was finally agreed at a meeting of representatives of 80 countries in Washington, D.C., the United States of America, on 3 March 1973, and on 1 July 1975 CITES entered in force, this is why it is popularly called as washington convention.
- Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws.
- Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimensof these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatiblewith their survival. Hence statement 2 is correct
- Appendix III – This Appendix contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistancein controlling the trade. Hence statement 3 is correct
Species may be added to or removed from Appendix I and II, or moved between them, only by the Conference of the Parties, But species may be added to or removed from Appendix III at any time and by any Party unilaterally.
6.Consider the following statements regarding PARIVESH Portal
- It is a Single-Window Integrated Environmental Management System designed, developed and hosted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with National Informatics Centre
- It is a role-based workflow application which has been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: People importing “exotic live species” must make voluntary disclosure: Centre
- For new “exotic live species”, the importer should obtain a no-objection certificate from the Chief Wildlife Warden ( CWLW) of the State.
- For existing species, stocks “shall be declared by the owner/ holder (stock, as on 1 January 2020) to the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the concerned State or UT”.
- The advisory also has provision of “registration of progenies of imported animals” to the respective CWLW within 30 days after their birth.
- The processes under this Advisory shall be dealt online through the Parivesh Portal
- Experts have welcomed the move and said it will create a process where all imports will be screened.
- This is the first time that CITES Appendix listed animals will be examined by the State Forest department
About the PARIVESH portal
- PARIVESH means-Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub
- It has been designed, developed and hosted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, with technical support from National Informatics Centre. Hence statement 1 is correct
- PARIVESH is a web-based, role-based workflow application whichhas been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities. Hence statement 2 is correct
- It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays the status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow.
- PARIVESH offers a framework to generate economic growth and strengthens Sustainable Development through EGovernance
- PARIVESH enables project proponents, citizens to view, track and interact with scrutiny officers, generates online clearance letters, online mailers, and alerts to state functionaries in case of delays beyond stipulated time for processing of the application
7.Consider the following statements regarding Chalakudy River
- It originates in the Anamalai region of Tamil Nadu
- Recently, the Kerala government has approved the proposed Athirapally Hydro Electric Project (AHEP) is situated on this river
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: Kerala govt gives NOC to Athirapally project, faces stiff opposition
- The Kerala government has issued a fresh no-objection certificate (NOC) for the state electricity board to proceed with the implementation of the proposed Athirapally hydro-electric project, which had been shelved several times in the past due to protests by green activists.
- Recently, the Kerala government has approved the proposed Athirapally Hydro Electric Project (AHEP) on the Chalakudy riverin Thrissur district of the state. Hence statement 2 is correct
About Chalakudy River
- It originates in the Anamalai region of Tamil Naduand is joined by its major tributaries Parambikulam, Kuriyarkutti, Sholayar, Karapara, and Anakayam in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct
- The river flows through Palakkad, Thrissur and Ernakulam districts of Kerala.
- It is the 4th longest river in Kerala and one of the very few rivers of Kerala, which is having relics of riparian vegetation at a substantial level.
- A riparian zone is an interface between land and a river or stream. Plant habitats and communities along the river margins and banks are called riparian vegetation, characterized by hydrophilic plants.
- It is the richest river in fish diversity perhaps in India as it contains 85 species of freshwater fishes out of the 152 species known from Kerala only.
- The famous waterfalls, Athirappilly Falls and Vazhachal Falls, are situated on this river.
- It merges with the Periyar River near Puthenvelikkara in Ernakulam district.
8.Consider the following statements regarding Ramon Magsaysay Award
- It is given every year to Asian individuals and organisations
- It carries Medallion bearing the likeness of the late Indonesia President Ramon Magsaysay, cash prize and a certificate.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In NEWS: The Ramon Magsaysay awards, Asia’s version of Nobel Prize awards cancelled
- The Ramon Magsaysay awards, regarded as Asia’s version of the Nobel Prize, have been cancelled this year due to the global pandemic, the only third time the annual awards were disrupted in six decades.
- The awards are named after a popular Philippine president who died in a 1957 plane crash and honour “greatness of spirit in selfless serviceto the peoples of Asia.” Awardees are presented with a certificate, a medallion with an embossed image of Ramon Magsaysay and cash prize. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation awards Asian individuals achieving excellence in their respective fields and have been known to help others generously without anticipating public recog Hence statement 1 is correct
- The awards were traditionally given in five categories: government service; public service; community leadership; journalism, literature, and creative communication arts; and peace and international understanding
- Many Indians have received the prestigious award in the past, including Mother Teresa, Jayaprakash Narayan, Satyajit Ray, Kiran Bedi, P. Sainath and current Delhi chief minister Arvind Kejriwal.
9.Consider the following statements regarding Border Adjustment Tax
- It is a duty that is proposed to be imposed on imported goods in addition to the customs levy that gets charged at the port of entry.
- Under this principle, a government taxes product based on the location of their production or origin.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
In NEWS: Levy of BAT on imported goods to create level-playing field for domestic players: Niti member
Niti Aayog member VK Saraswat on Wednesday favoured imposing a border adjustment tax (BAT) on imports to provide a level-playing field to domestic industries.
BAT is a duty that is proposed to be imposed on imported goods in addition to the customs levy that gets charged at the port of entry.
- BAT is a fiscal measure that imposes a charge on goods or services in accordance with the destination principle of taxation. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Under this principle, a government taxes products based on the location of their saleto the final consumer rather than on the location of their production or origin. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- Thus, to adjust a tax “at the border,” a country taxes imported products and domestically produced products sold on its market on the same basis and at the same rate; and exempts from this tax products exported for sale to foreign consumers.
- Generally, BAT seeks to promote “equal conditions of competition” for foreign and domestic companies supplying products or services within a taxing jurisdiction.
- The World Trade Organization (WTO) rules allow for the adjustment of certain types of internal taxes at the border under certain conditions.
- The main conditions are as follows:The tax must be applied equally to imports and “like” domestic products, the tax must be “borne” by a product and not be “direct” and a permitted border tax adjustment must not subsidize exports.
10.Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
- Bengaluru
- Hyderabad
- Nagpur
- Pune
Answer: (a) Bengaluru
Explanation:
Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude. Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025° E Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946° E longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867° E longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882° E longitude of pune- 73.8567° E. Hence option (a) is correct
