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Daily Prelims Test – 11_August_2021

Which of the following is/are the suitable conditions for Tea Plantation?

  • It is a tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in moderately hot and humid climates.
  • It requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall which should be well distributed throughout the year.
  • The ideal temperature for its growth is 20°-30°C.

Select the correct answer using the coded given below:

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1 and 2 only
  4. d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: North Indian tea producers likely to see contraction in margins during current fiscal

  • A majority of the bulk tea producing companies which operate estates in North India (Assam and West Bengal), are likely to witness a contraction in margins during the current fiscal on the back of an increased cost of production due to wage hike and drop in prices.
  • The tea industry in North India, which registered a 12-13 per cent decline in production last year, had its costs rising by Rs 35-40 a kg. However, the average price of tea increased by Rs 60-65 a kg last year, thereby pushing up the margins of companies.
  • Plantation condition:
  • Tea is a tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in moderately hot and humid climates. Hence statement (1) is correct
  • The ideal temperature for its growth is 20°-30°C and temperatures above 35°C and below 10°C are harmful for the bushHence statement (3) is correct
  • It requires 150-300 cm annual rainfall which should be well distributed throughout the year. Hence statement (2) is correct
  • The most suitable soil for tea cultivation is slightly acidic soil (without calcium) with porous sub-soil which permits a free percolation of water.
  • The major tea-producing states in India are: Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Sikkim, Nagaland, Uttarakhand, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Bihar, Orissa.

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/north-indian-tea-producers-likely-to-see-contractions-in-margins-during-current-fiscal/article35796296.ece

Consider the following statements regarding minority community in India:

  1. The six communities were listed as minority communities in Indian constitution.
    1. The language of any linguistic minority group need not be one of the twenty-two languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: Minority schools across India violating norms, says apex child rights body in latest report

  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights stressed that the minority institutions are not serving the purpose they are meant for while enjoying the benefits under the law.
  • India’s apex child rights body in its report on minority education has said that students enrolled in unrecognised madrasas, Vedic schools, and gumpas (Buddhist places of learning) should be treated as out of school kids. 
  • The report also underlined that the majority of the minority institutions are violating guidelines.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), in its 116-page report, prepared over the last five years, has also stressed that the minority institutions are not serving the purpose they are meant for while enjoying the benefits under the law.
  • The report titled “Impact of Exemption under Article 15(5) w.r.t. Article 21a of the Constitution of India on the education of children of minority communities” has now been submitted to the Union education ministry.

Minority community:

  • The Central has notified minority communities at the national level in consultation with various stakeholders under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM), Act,
  • The six communities notified as minority communities under Section 2(c) of the NCM Act, 1992 are Christians, Sikhs, Muslims, Buddhists, Parsis, and JainsHence statement (1) is correct.
  • Notification of any community-specific to a State as a minority community within a State comes under the purview of the State
  • Who are linguistic minorities?
  • Linguistic Minorities are groups or collectivities of individuals residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language or script of their own.
  • The language of the minority group need not be one of the twenty-two languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the ConstitutionHence statement (2) is correct.
  • In other words, linguistic minorities at the State level mean any group or groups of people whose mother tongues are different from the principal language of the State, and at the district and taluka/tehsil levels, different from the principal language of the district or taluka/tehsil concerned.
  • The linguistic minorities are therefore identified by the respective States/UTs.
  • The State/UT wise, broad linguistic profile is available in the 52nd Report of the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities(CLM).

Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2021/aug/10/minority-schools-across-india-violating-norms-says-apex-child-rights-body-in-latest-report-2342790.html

NK Vishwanathan committee sometimes seen in news is related to?

  1. a) Strengthening Health Sector in India
  2. b) Rolls out CNG Buses
  3. c) Change land acquisition for mining
  4. d) Assess regulatory measures taken by RBI for UCBs

Answer: (d) Assess regulatory measures taken by RBI for UCBs

Explanation:

In NEWS: New licensing regime for urban co-operative banks in the pipeline

  • Report of committee headed by ex-RBI deputy governor may be submitted in a fortnight
  • A brand new licensing regime for urban co-operative banks (UCBs) is on the cards for financially sound and well-managed co-operative credit societies. This comes 17 years after the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) stopped issuing them, with the number of UCBs now at 1,539, down from 1,926 in 2003-04.

N S Vishwanathan committee:

  • The expert committee on primary (urban) co-operative banks, headed by former RBI deputy governor N S Vishwanathan, is expected to submit its report within a fortnight. Hence option (d) is correct.
  • Its mandate is to take stock of the regulatory measures taken by the RBI and other authorities for UCBs and assess their impact over the past five years. 
  • It will also identify key constraints and enablers in fulfillment of their socio-economic objective, and review the current regulatory and supervisory approach. 

Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/new-licensing-regime-for-urban-co-operative-banks-in-the-pipeline-121080900030_1.html

Consider the following statements regarding Provisions of RTI Act:

  1. If the information is related to life and personal liberty then the information should be provided within 48 hours.
    1. An applicant making a request for information shall be required to give reason for requesting the information.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

In NEWS: No particular format required to file RTI: Haryana Information Commission

  • In a landmark order in a case, the state information commission (SIC) Haryana has made it clear that no authority in the state can force an RTI applicant to apply in a particular format or submit identity proof with the application.
  • As per the case, an advocate had filed an RTI before a block development and Panchayat officer (BDPO) in Haryana to know about the funds given to different institutions by the office for construction purposes.
  • He was denied the requisite information while informing that the state government has made an amendment in the Haryana Right to Information Rules, which stipulates that an applicant seeking information under the Act is required to file the RTI in Model Form A, along with an identity card issued by the government.

Provisions of RTI Act

  • Every public authority has to provide to the citizen the right to information within a prescribed time limit and public authorities have been ascertained by the Act itself. It includes any body/ authority established by Constitution of India, Parliament or State legislature and All bodies notified by Central or State government
  • It is mandatory for a public authority to create a separate office called PIO (Public Information Officer), with an objective to provide information within a prescribed time limit of 30 days. If the information is related to life and personal liberty then the information should be provided within 48 hours. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • If any citizen is not satisfied with the content, context or subject matter of any information or the information is not provided within a prescribed time limit of 30 days then an appeal can be filed before 1st level Appellate Authority (i.e. the Joint Secretary of the respective department) and against the adjudication of 1st level Appellate Authority, an appeal can be filed before the 2nd Appellate Authority (Central and State Information Commission).
  • This Act also describes the term information in a comprehensive manner. Information means any material in any form including records, documents, e-mails, opinions, advice, orders, law books, contracts, samples etc.
  • The RTI Act also determines some exceptions under which the public authorities have no obligation to give any official information to any citizen.
  • The RTI Act, 2005 is the central Act and Section 6 (2) of the same allows an applicant to conceal his identity and to seek information without giving any reason.
  • An applicant making a request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
  • The commission directed the public information officer to supply complete information to the applicant free of cost.

Source: TH

Consider the following statements regarding Internet Governance Forum:

  1. It is a multi-stakeholder governance group for policy dialogue on issues of Internet governance.
    1. Its secretariat is located at the headquarters of the International Telecommunication Union.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: India to host the first Internet Governance Forum in the country

  • India Internet Governance Forum 2021 (IGF), announced today the launch of India Internet Governance Forum (IIGF) -2021 in a Press Conference, organised at Electronics Niketan, New Delhi. IIGF- 2021 will be planned for three days, starting from 20th October, 2021. The theme of this year’s meeting is Inclusive Internet for Digital India.
  • It’s an Internet Governance policy discussion platform to bring representatives together from various groups, considering all at par to discuss public policy issues related to the Internet.
  • This mode of engagement is referred to as the multi-stakeholder model of Internet Governance, which has been the key feature for the Internet’s success. Multi Stakeholder concept is well adopted by IGF (Internet Governance Forum) under United Nations and by Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
  • Internet Governance Forum (IGF):
  • IGF is a multi-stakeholder governance group for policy dialogue on issues of Internet governance. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • Purpose:It brings together all stakeholders in the Internet governance debate, whether they represent governments, the private sector or civil society through an open and inclusive process.
  • Origin: The establishment of the IGF was formally announced by the United Nations Secretary-General in 2006. Its first meeting was first convened in 2006 and has held an annual meeting since then.
  • Secretariat:UN Office in Geneva, Switzerland. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • Funding:IGF is financed through the extra-budgetary Trust Fund Account managed by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs(UNDESA).

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1744012

Exercise Zayed Talwar 2021 is a bilateral naval exercise between

  1. a) Indian and UAE Navy
  2. b) India and USA Navy
  3. c) India and Madagascar Navy
  4. d) India and France Navy

Answer: (a) India and UAE Navy

Explanation:

In NEWS: Indian Navy undertakes bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar 2021’ with UAE Navy

  • Indian Navy undertook bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar 2021’ with UAE Navy on Saturday off the coast of Abu Dhabi. Hence option (a) is correct
  • INS Kochi, with two integral Sea King MK 42B helicopters, deployed in the Persian Gulf, participated in the exercise.
  • UAE participated with UAE’S AL – Dhafra, a Baynunah class guided missile corvette and one AS – 565B Panther helicopter.
  • As part of the exercise, the ships undertook tactical manoeuvres, Over the Horizon Targeting, Search and Rescue and Electronic Warfare exercises to enhance interoperability and synergy between the two navies.
  • Helicopters were extensively used all through the exercise ranging from Search and Rescue serial to passing of targeting data to ships for simulated missile engagement drills.

Source: https://newsonair.com/2021/08/08/indian-navy-undertakes-bilateral-exercise-zayed-talwar-2021-with-uae-navy/

Consider the following statements regarding Seekho aur Kamao:

  1. It is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
    1. It is a skill development scheme for the youth of the 14 – 35 years age group.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In NEWS: ‘Seekho Aur Kamao’ Scheme

  • Union Minister for Minority Affairs has informed Rajya Sabha about the Seekho aur Kamao Scheme
  • About Seekho aur Kamao Scheme:
  • Seekho aur Kamao (Learn & Earn) is a scheme implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • Purpose: It is a Skill development scheme for the youth of the 14 – 35 years age group. It aims at providing employment and employment opportunities, improving the employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc. Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • Implementation: The scheme is implemented through selected expert Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs).
  • The scheme ensures placements of a minimum of 75% trainees, out of which at least 50% placement is in the organized sector.
  • Moreover, Post-placement support of Rs. 2000/- per month is provided to placed trainees under the scheme for two months as placement assistance.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1744062

Consider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit System:

  1. It was only applicable to the three North-Eastern States viz. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
    1. It is issued by the concerned State Government and can be issued for travel purposes solely.
    1. Foreigners need a Protected Area Permit to visit tourist places which are different from ILPs needed by domestic tourists.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1 and 2 only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In NEWS: Ladakh removes Inner Line Permit system for domestic tourists

  • In a bid to underline India’s sovereignty, the Ladakh administration has scrapped the Inner Line Permit (ILP) system from the tourist attractions in the ‘protected’ regions.
  • This will make visiting Ladakh easier for Indian tourists who need to take permission from the government to visit such areas. This means that tourists can now easily visit places such as Batalik in Kargil.
  • Inner Line Permit System
  • Implemented under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR) 1873, the ILP is an official travel document which allows inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected/restricted areafor a limited period.
  • This Act was enacted during the British era to protect the Crown’s own commercial interests by preventing ‘British subjects’ (Indians) from trading within these regions.
  • In 1950, the Indian government replaced ‘British subjects’ with ‘Citizen of India’.
  • An imaginary line known as the inner-line was created to divide between the two communities so that neither party could go beyond the line without a permit from the appropriate authorities.
  • Under Section 2 of the Regulation of 1873, the ILP was only applicable to the three North-Eastern States viz. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland. Hence statement (1) is correct.
  • On 11th December 2020, the President signed the order extending ILP to Manipur, which became the fourth state where the ILP regime is applicable.
  • It is a special permit obligatorily required by “outsiders” from other regions of the country to enter the notified states.
  • It is issued by the concerned State Government and can be issued for travel purposes solelyHence statement (2) is correct.
  • Foreigners need a Protected Area Permit (PAP) to visit tourist places which are different from ILPs needed by domestic touristsHence statement (3) is correct.
  • Under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order 1958, all areas falling between the ‘Inner Line’, as defined in the said order, and the International Border of the State have been declared as a Protected Area.
  • A foreign national is normally not allowed to visit a Protected/Restricted Area unless it is established to the satisfaction of the Government that there are extraordinary reasons to justify such a visit.

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/ladakh-removes-inner-line-permit-system-for-domestic-tourists/as85172181.cms

Which of the following criteria are followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area in india?

  1. preponderance of tribal population;
    1. compactness and reasonable size of the area;
  2. .    3. under-developed nature of the area; and
    1. Marked disparity in economic standard of the people.

Select the correct answer using the coe given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only
  2. b) 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. c) 2 and 4 ony
  4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

In NEWS:

  • The tribal outfits in Rajasthan have demanded inclusion of over 165 village panchayats of seven districts in the scheduled areas under the Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP). 
  • The tribal groups said the population of Scheduled Tribes in these panchayats had crossed 50%, making them eligible to be declared as scheduled areas. 
  • The objective of the demand is to facilitate the control of local communities over minor minerals and minor forest produce as well as development activities in the region. 
  • It will also ensure statutory protection of the tribal population.
  • Consequently, the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, will apply to these areas. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India for ensuring self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.
  • The tribal groups have also been spearheading a movement for creation of a separate State, Bhil Pradesh, to be carved out of the tribal-dominated areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Fifth Schedule areas:

  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitutiondeals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • At present, 10 Statesnamely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana have Fifth Schedule Areas.
  • Tribal habitations in the states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir have not been brought under the Fifth or Sixth Schedule.
  • As per Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution, Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.
  • The criteria followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area are:
  • Preponderance of tribal population;
  • Compactness and reasonable size of the area;
  • Under-developed nature of the area; and
  • Marked disparity in economic standard of the people. Hence option (d) is correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/tribals-in-rajasthan-seek-morepanchayats-in-scheduled-areas/article35827374.ece

Consider the following statements:

  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G2O group of countries.
    1. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • 1 only
    • 2 only
    • Both 1 and 2
    • Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society and the private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors.
  • The Coalition’s initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and Hence statement (2) is correct.
  • The governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), came together to initiate the first effort to treat these pollutants as a collective challenge.Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
  • The coalition has 53 country partners and 17 International Governmental Organizations and 45 Non governmental organization partners. India is not a partner country however The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI ) has been a partner NGO since 2015.